I attach the file.
EXAM 1, 132, FALL 2020 20
EXAM 1
HISTORY 132 FALL 2020
DUE: TUESDAY, September 29, no later than midnight
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS!
No, seriously. Read and adhere to the Instructions!
This exam is based on Chapters 15-20 in Brinkley. There are also questions drawn from my posts so it would be a good idea to review those, especially “Geography”. Do not ignore the sidebar essays in Brinkley. At the end of the exam, I’ve again included (for encouragement) some ‘thoughts on strategy’ which might be worth looking over before you start.
There is a “short” essay. Write in complete sentences and paragraphs, not an outline or sentence fragments. Review and revise as necessary and make sure you answer all parts of the question.
THIS IS IMPORTANT! READ THE QUESTION CAREFULLY. THINK THROUGH TO THE MOST LOGICAL, MOST REASONABLE ANSWER. For Multiple Choice, read both the question and ALL options for an answer. None of these questions are intended to be tricky or devious; they are all drawn directly from the assigned material. However, if you don’t understand what the question is asking or don’t think logically as to what the best possible answer is, your odds of being wrong skyrocket.
The easiest way to handle this would be to “save” this test as a separate Word document and then write your answers directly into it. Make the document you created an attachment to an e-mail for return. I much prefer that you use: [email protected]. Do NOT send it via Blackboard or to my UAA e-mail address.
Submit your completed test as a Word or .rtf document attached to an e-mail. Do not send your exam in a PDF format. Do not send it in “pages” or some other form. If you submit the test in anything else than a Word or .rtf document, I will return it.
Be sure to put your name on the actual test, not just the e-mail cover note.
Submit your test by Tuesday, September 29th, no later than midnight. If circumstances arise that might prevent you from meeting that deadline, you must let me know about them well ahead. I can be accommodating to emergencies but once I post the general comments, I cannot accept further submissions. Let me emphasize that this is meant to cover genuine and unforeseen emergencies and what constitutes a valid reason is my call.
VERY IMPORTANT: I will acknowledge receipt of your exam within 24 hours. If you do not get a note from me within a day, try again until you do. I cannot over-emphasize the importance of this. Remember, I have no way of knowing that I did not receive something you sent. If you send a test but I don’t receive it and you don’t follow up before I post results, that test will stand at zero points. It is your responsibility to keep trying until I confirm that I have your test.
The assigned material is all you need to answer the questions. That said, you may use any acceptable (that is, reputable scholarly work) source but there are two requirements. First, any answer you write has to be correct based on information in the assigned readings. Regardless of source, your answer cannot conflict with the materials assigned in this course. Second, if you use other than material assigned for this class, you must provide a citation. If you cite an on-line source, the footnote must include the complete url so I can verify it. Not doing so will cost points.
All direct quotes, regardless of source, must have a citation.
Again for emphasis, this test is due by Tuesday, September 29th, no later than midnight. The date-time reference on your e-mail will be proof of timely submission. Tests submitted after that date will be penalized as outlined in the Syllabus. I will not accept any submissions after I post General Comments on Blackboard.
Let me also emphasize, this is not a race. Don’t hurry just to get done. You have two great advantages here: time and resources. Use them.
A note of warning - this is NOT a team effort. This exam is to be your work alone. Penalties for breaking this rule can be painful.
FINALLY, TAKE TIME TO REVIEW YOUR WORK!
PROOF READ!!!!
Did all the above stuff lock in? If not, I suggest you go back and reread them.
MULTIPLE CHOICE: (5 points each; 150 total points) Read the question carefully. Make sure you understand just what the question is asking. Select the best answer. While there may initially appear to be more than one right answer, if you analyze the question and understand what it is asking, there will be only one best answer.
While information to answer the questions comes from Brinkley, you won’t always find the answers given word-for-word. While some questions are very straight-forward, others require some deductive thinking to figure out what is the most logical, most reasonable answer. Always, there will be only one answer that makes the most sense, is the most logical, or is the most important significance or consequence. Think about dates or other information found throughout the exam. Even if you don’t know the answer, you can often eliminate at least two of the choices by logical deduction based on what you do know.
Important: Notice that some of the questions ask you to identify which is “NOT” correct, usually with the word “Except”. That is, three of the answers are valid statements; your task is to find the one answer that is wrong or invalid. . First of all, this requires that you actually read the question to grasp the implication of “Except”. Also, don’t go Googling to find the answer. In an “Except” form of question, the “right” choice is the one-in-four that is factually wrong. You’re not going to be able to search it out. With such questions (and there will be others on the exams), the intended answer will be the one statement that is wrong either because it is wrong compared to what Brinkley stated (for example, reversing his wording or using a wrong date) or because it wasn’t mentioned at all.
Also, if any part of what a potential answer says is wrong, then the whole thing must be considered wrong. So be wary of the statement that seems mostly okay – watch out for the part that invalidates the whole. Bottom line: read it carefully, understand what it is really saying.
In all other questions, the best answer will be the one that most accurately matches what was said in Brinkley.
1. One of the milestone pieces of legislation of Wilson’s second term was the Keating-Owens Act regulating child labour. Which of the following is most accurate when considering Keating-Owens?
A. the Act became recognized as the single greatest social advance of the Wilson era.
B. the Act eventually died because it had a 10-year “sunset” clause
C. since Wilson refused to sign it, Keating-Owens was pocket-vetoed and never became law.
D. the Supreme Court struck it down
2. In response to the resistance to Federal authority presented by terrorist organizations like the Knights of the White Camellia, Congress passed acts to suppress them known as:
A. the Ku Klux Klan Acts B. the White Camellia Acts
C. the Night Rider Suppression Act D. the Patriot Acts
3. In 1898, the United States made dramatic territorial acquisitions in the western Pacific region, including all of the following island territories EXCEPT:
A. Guam B. Midway C. Wake D. Jarvis
(in addition to reading the text, it might help to look at the map on p.547)
4. During the 19th Century, patterns of consumer tastes changed dramatically. All of the following are valid statements about changing patterns of consumer preferences EXCEPT:
A. At the beginning of the 19th Century, most Americans made their own clothing but, by the end of the century, most people bought their clothing in stores.
B. Because of lead contamination, Americans were reluctant to consume foods from tin cans.
C. Consumers of all classes increasingly shopped for clothes to reflect personal choice in style.
D. Chain stores extended their reach to remote rural areas through the novel marketing technique of the mail-order catalog.
5. In 1876, the Democratic candidate for president, Samuel J. Tilden, won by a substantial number of popular votes. Why don’t we remember “President” Tilden?
A. Although Tilden won the popular vote, the Republican candidate, Hayes, had more votes in the Electoral College.
B. After the Electoral College was deadlocked over disputed returns, a special commission awarded the votes, and the presidency, to Hayes on a strict party line vote
C. To avoid the appearance of corruption, Tilden withdrew after the Electoral Commission accused him of trying to sway its vote
D. Actually, we do but Tilden’s term was cut so short by an assassination that it left no impression on the American public
6. The United States acquired the Hawaiian Islands by:
A. purchase after American sugar planters agreed to reimburse the United States for the cost
B. annexation after American sugar planters engineered a revolution and toppled the legitimate Hawaiian government
C. negotiation with Great Britain and Germany, resulting in division of the islands among the three powers
D. conquest after the United States invaded the islands to gain access to a naval base at Pearl Harbor
7. Which of the following best expresses what Brinkley had to say about the evolving concept of leisure time in the later 19th Century?
A. The concept of leisure time was an extension of pre-Civil War beliefs that time off
from work was essential to the growth of people to their full potential.
B. It was hard for Americans to accept the idea of a lot of free time because most people
recognized that maximum work hours was the only way to maintain corporate profits
C. Increasing time away from work resulted in the growth of entertainment venues like
amusement parks, sporting events, and movie theatres.
D. With echoes of the deeply-embedded old Protestant work ethic, many Americans
continued to think of leisure time as somehow undermining good character, the old maxim “idle hands are the Devil’s tool” capturing the sentiment.
8. Historians have long disagreed about the meaning and substance of the Populist movement in the later 19th and early 20th Centuries. All of the following correctly match a historian with his or her interpretation of Populism EXCEPT:
A. Richard Hofstadter: Populism rested on an unrealistic romanticized vision of an agrarian past that was irretrievably gone
B. Elizabeth Sanders: Populism survived well into the 20th Century and helped turn the Democratic Party into an advocate for social reforms for which the Populists had fought for.
C. Lawrence Goodwyn: the Populists, acknowledging reality, came to accept integration with modern capitalism as the best way to achieve some of their goals
D. Steven Hahn: Populists were resisting encroachments of a new commercial order of which they had never been a part and which was leaving them behind
9. All of the following are reasons why the United States declared war on Spain EXCEPT:
A. The sinking of the USS Maine in Havana harbor
B. The desire of northern textile manufacturers to acquire Cuba to revive the cotton plantation and slave labour economy
C. The ruthless attempt of Spanish authorities to suppress a Cuban revolution
D. The emotional agitation of “yellow” journalism
10. In the decades after the Civil War, there was explosive growth in the size and variety of American industries. Brinkley identifies several factors contributing to this growth, one of which was:
A. The government proved willing to deploy Federal troops to enforce the new laws on workplace health and safety
B. growth of overseas trade that allowed American industries to offset the lack of natural
resources in the United States through large-scale imports
C. Bonding over common goals, if for different reasons, labour and management in harmony to build thriving corporations
D. governments that provided key assistance to the concept of growth, mostly through
legislation
11. Early in the 20th Century, artists began exploring new art forms different from the traditional academic style. All of the following were artists of this new form EXCEPT:
A. John Singer Sargent B. Edward Hopper
C. George Bellows D. John Sloan
12. According to Brinkley, by 1900, $600 annual income was considered the minimum to maintain a reasonable level of comfort. Assuming that, which of the following is a true statement?
A. the growing industrial economy easily provided most workers with at least that income
B. the actual annual income of most workers was as much as one-third less, resulting in deep systemic poverty
C. since most workers were paid an hourly wage, annual incomes are too hard to estimate to give such a figure much validity
D. using that figure as a standard, the government provided benefits to make up the difference whenever the real wages of a worker fell below $600
13. Despite the many problems of rapid urban growth, the cities of the late 1800s continued to grow because they were attractive to people for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. People could enjoy alternative life styles more freely than in small towns
B. Cities were exciting, providing a wide range of cultural experiences than available in small towns
C. The cities had become the main source of good-paying jobs
D. With increased population density, it was easier for reformers to enforce stricter codes of morality
14. According to Brinkley, one of the most powerful tenets of Progressivism was:
A. that social stability was best achieved by a powerful central governments
B. that social cohesion depended on letting people be as individualistic as possible
C. that application of principles of science could make society more equitable
D. that the complexities of modern life could solved by local officials like party bosses who were in a position to best know what their constituents needed
15. In response to public resentment at the growing power of corporations, Congress passed legislation in the late 1800s and early 1890s to give the appearance of action. Mostly intended to be symbolic gestures and undercut by courts, these laws eventually did actually became powerful tools in the government’s ability to regulate business practices. The two key laws were:
A. The Sheridan Consolidation Act and the Sherman Anti-Trust Act
B. The Intrastate Commerce Act and the Garfield Fair Practices Act
C. The Interstate Commerce Act and the Intrastate Commerce Enabling Act
D. The Interstate Commerce Act and the Sherman Anti-Trust Act
16. For the United States, intervention in China during the Boxer Rebellion had what important result?
A. Reduced tariffs on exports to China of sugar and machine parts
B. Critical experience for its army in overseas expeditions in cooperation with other intervening powers
C. The Open Door policy became generally accepted by other powers
D. Widespread American acceptance of Chinese fast food outlets like Panda Express
17. The most significant effect of the Spanish-American War for the United States was:
A. With the acquisition of Puerto Rico, Cuba, and the Philippines, the U.S. expanded its domain by giving each of these formal territorial status
B. With the acquisition of Puerto Rico, Cuba, and the Philippines, Americans finally had duty-free access to quality rum
C. With the acquisition of the Philippines, the U.S. was drawn much more deeply into Pacific and Far Eastern affairs
D. When the United States bought the colony of Panama from Spain, it acquired a route for a canal linking the Pacific and the Atlantic
18. The impulse for reform that gave rise to the Progressive movement included all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Progressivism expressed faith that rational thought - application of the natural and social sciences - could improve society.
B. Progressivism was one form of expression of Social Darwinism
C. Progressivism was an expression of the fear of concentrated wealth and the political corruption it was likely to cause
D. Progressivism arose from a fear of that the free-wheeling spirit of the Gilded Age was shredding the social fabric and a concern for victims of forces like industrialization
19. Woodrow Wilson’s slogan for his reform movement was:
A. The Fair Deal B. The New Freedom
C. The New Nationalism D. The Raw Deal
20. In the landmark case of Plessy v. Ferguson, the Supreme Court validated the “separate but equal” standard but, on the issue of segregation in schools, almost immediately undercut its own decision in a case titled:
A. Brown v. Board of Education B. Cumming v. County Board of Education C. Guinn v. United States D. Buchanan v. Worley
21. Immigration had long been a contentious issue but by the end of the 19th Century (meaning at the end of the 1800s), a new controversy emerged because a growing number of immigrants now came from:
A. the Slavic lands of eastern Europe B. Sub-Sahara Africa
C. the Caribbean Islands D. Southwest Asia
22. Frederick Jackson Turner proposed a theory that stood for many years as the explanation of the role of the West in American history. Beginning in the late 1970s, a new generation of western historians challenged many of Turner’s conclusions. All of the following statements accurately state the contrast difference between these two schools of thought EXCEPT:
A. Turner focused on settlement and rugged individualism while the new historians emphasized conquest and massive government programs
B. Turner emphasized the cooperative nature of Whites with indigenous peoples while
the new historians highlighted the destruction of long-established cultures
C. Turner emphasized a frontier that had closed; the new historians wrote of the West as an on-going process that continues to this day
D. Turner wrote of a West where settlers were extremely protective of scarce natural resources; the new historians gave positive reinforcement to the self-serving romantic image that settlers had on themselves
23. The first national park was:
A. Hetch Hetchy Valley B. Gettysburg
C. Grand Canyon D. Yellowstone
24. On page 554 of the textbook there is a carton by Joseph Keppler titled “The Bosses of the Senate”. What issue was Keppler drawing attention to, specifically, and what larger social issue was this cartoon expressing?
A. corruption of the political process by well-funded special interests
B. the dangers of letting non-senatorial observers into the public galleries
C. the problem of obesity in late 19th century America
D. how senators could corrupt and impede the process of advancing capitalist interests
25. During the Spanish-American War, all of the following tactics were used by American forces to quell the Aguinaldo rebellion EXCEPT:
A. concentration camps
B. summary execution of captured Filipino soldiers
C. attempts to win “hearts and minds” of the civil population
D. destruction of villages and resources that might support the guerrillas
26. Historians have long disagreed over the meaning and causes of the Progressive movement. Which of the following choices correctly matches a historian with his or her position on Progressivism?
A. Richard Hofstadter - Progressivism was a reflection of “status anxiety” on the part of a new middle class trying to enhance its position in society by creating new national institutions
B. Kathryn Sklar - Progressivism cannot be fully understood without accounting for the attempt of women to protect their interests from the challenges of the new industrial order
C. Elaine Tyler May - Progressivism stemmed from the retreat of women from the traditional reform movements, leaving men to define the important issues of reform within the new industrial economy.
D. John Buenker argued that Progressivism was a movement of older elites whose social status was fading under pressures from powerful new institutions of the industrialized economy
27. Which of the following statements best expresses a core theme of Mark Twain’ stories?
A. main characters struggled to gain acceptability in society, sometimes making it but more often falling back into a life of poverty and petty crime
B. main characters rejected the ties of conventional society, hoping to escape into a natural environment
C. main characters were allegories for the perils of a wasted life
D. main characters were thinly disguised ways of ridiculing pompous political figures of the day
28. The Boxer Rebellion of 1900 came to an end when:
A. the Chinese army finally was able to suppress the various secret societies, including the Boxers
B. realizing the Boxers had legitimate grievances, the United States tossed its support to them
C. a multi-national armed force occupied Peking and rescued the foreign diplomats who had been under siege there
D. China agreed to make wrestling its national sport instead of boxing
29. Brinkley discusses the “Crisis of the 1890s” and identifies several reasons for it, including all of the following EXCEPT:
A. a severe economic depression
B. the inflexible conservatism of the president
C. the ruinous cost of the Spanish-American War
D. little positive action from the government to ease the crisis
30. The outcome of the great labour strikes of the late 1800s, such as Pullman, demonstrated that the Federal government, with the support of the courts, would:
A. use force on the side of corporations against striking workers
B. be an “honest broker” in mediating disputes between management and labour
C. decline to intervene, tossing the problem back to state governments to be handled
D. create an bureau to arbitrate labour-management disputes
IN-THE-BLANKS Fill in the blank space with the most appropriate answer as given in Brinkley. When thinking of an answer, think of the most obvious, most specific, most direct choice. If you find yourself generalizing, think again. There is probably a more exact answer. (2 point for each blank filled in correctly - 42 total points)
1. The Pullman Strike came to an end when President _______________ sent Federal troops to break the strike, citing the necessity of keeping the mail moving.
2. Between 1860 and 1920, _____________________ [specific number] immigrants arrived in the United States (according to Brinkley). [think about the time span involved – 1890 is only the mid-point here]
3. In 1912, Congress created the ____________ , a government agency tasked with preventing occupational sickness such as tuberculosis
4. Early in the 20th Century, a new form of entertainment opened in New York that featured exotic and spectacular rides and exhibits that provided and escape from the heat and grit of the city. Characterized by so-called “amusement parks”, this place was known as ___________.
5. Near the end of the 19th century, the first state in the Union to grant women the vote was
________________________.
6. In 1913, Congress created the Federal Reserve System. This new agency had several responsibilities, the most important of which was _____________________
7. In 1911, a catastrophic work site disaster in New York led to a series of pioneering labour laws that regulated labour safety practices of factory owners. This disaster was called the ______________ .
8 and 9. The first great mineral (mostly gold) strikes since the California gold rush occurred in
_______________________. (give the physical location and the date)
10. In 1901, President McKinley (he of the Alaska mountain fame) was assassinated. As a result, _____________________________ (specific name) became president.
11. By the later 19th Century, reformers and urban planners emerged to bring order to the often chaotic growth and congestion of the expanding cities. Led by planners like Frederick Law Olmsted, one of the most important innovations of this movement was ___________________.
.
12. In 1902, the new government of Cuba was forced by the United States to include a clause in its constitution giving the U.S. the right to intervene in its affairs and maintain naval bases on the island. This provision was called the _____________________________.
13. Around the turn-of-the-century (meaning as 1899 faded into 1900), a genuine American art form emerged that portrayed the gritty reality and loneliness of cities. Below are two of the most famous pieces of this art form, Nighthawks by Edward Hopper and McSorley’s Bar by John Sloan (which I’m including simply because they’re favorites and I think you should recognize them). This new art form was called _____________ .
Note: Brinkley says “The work of these and other artists mark the beginning in America of an artistic movement known as modernism” (meaning the answer isn’t “modernism”).
14. In 1862 Congress had passed the Homestead Act but, as settlement moved further onto the arid Great Plains, 160 acres proved far too small for farming there. In 1873, Congress passed the ____________ (name the specific legislation) that allowed settlers to claim an additional 160 acres.
15. The Merrill Land Grant Act resulted in a number of colleges known as _______________.
16-17 The first feature film to have sound came out in 1927 and told the story of a minstrel performer. This movie was titled ___________________ and starred one of the most famous minstrel show performers, __________________ (name this person).
18 and 19. According to Brinkley, how many cars were on the highways in 1895? ______ (give the specific number of cars). How many in 1917? _____________.
20. In 1896, the Supreme Court rendered a decision that made “separate but equal” the legal justification for segregation. The name of this landmark case was: ________________
21. In 1890, in a book titled ______________________, Jacob Riis shocked middleclass Americans with a vivid description of urban slums.
TRUE-FALSE 2 points each, 24 points total. Circle or indicate whether the statement is True or False
1. The WCTU was a Christian athletic organization and the forerunner of the NCAA. T F
2. The Ballinger-Pinchot Affair was a dispute over privatization of government coal reserves in Alaska. T F
3. In the early 20th Century, the activities of the Public Health Service resulted in general agreement that protection of public health was the responsibility of the Federal government. T F
4. The first truly national labour organization was the Noble Knights of Toiling Workers T F
5. According to Brinkley, the Molly McGuires, although often violent, frequently were accused of violent acts that were actually the action of the mine owners. T F
6. During the Spanish-American War, Filipinos welcomed Americans troops at first. But, when they realized the Americans were just replacing the Spanish as occupiers, they began a long, bloody revolt T F
7. Having been impeached, President Johnson was removed from office. T F
8. Muckrakers were the immigrant laborers who toiled at the lowest end of the industrial ladder, often working in water treatment plants and sewers T F
9. In 1899, the United States settled controversy over Samoa by partitioning the islands with another new power in the Pacific, the Empire of Japan. T F
10. By the end of the 19th Century, in stark contrast to earlier periods, more than half of all immigrants came from Greece, Italy, and other regions of southern and eastern Europe. T F
11. By the end of the 19th Century, Progressive reformers throughout the industrialized world adopted something termed “social democracy” which saw a shift from struggles over the privileges of elite classes to attempts to improve the lot of ordinary people. T F
12. According to Brinkley, the largest reform movement of the Progressive Era was gaining the franchise for women BUT it was a somewhat misguided effort because women had gained the vote with ratification of the 15th Amendment. T F
SHORT ESSAY (1 essay, 25 points).
Don’t be misled by the word “Short”. “Short” does not mean a cryptic outline, a truncated text message thing, or an essay that contains good info but which is jumbled and lacking in cohesion or proper organization. This is intended to be a fairly substantial discussion of the item, giving appropriate context and consequence or significance. That means what were the background factors (the context) and how did things change as a result? You don’t have to struggle to cram in every little detail but you absolutely have to get in enough information so it is clear to the reader what happened, why, and why it was important. You are free to consult other sources (say, on-line ones) but, if you do, you must cite them.
Be sure to include dates and examples as appropriate. Be sure to make some statement about the significance, consequence, impact, or results of the topic you choose to write on. That is, what is MOST important about it?
Very Important: I’ve given some prompts as to what your answer should include. These are not meant to be the only things you say but should only be taken as indications of what information must be included, regardless of what else you say.
A good strategy would be to think of the rule “who, what, why, where, when, and how.” Specific answers to those questions builds the core of a solidly informative answer.
REMEMBER: “Essay” means a carefully thought-out, coherently developed, and clearly written discussion, not cryptic bullet points, an outline, or a summary.
WRITE ON ANY ONE OF THE FOLLOWING:
1. The New South. (what does this term mean, generally? Give two examples of what Brinkley meant by the “New South”. For each, tell how it was actually “new”. That is, how was it different from the “old” South? After reading Brinkley, do you sense a truly “New South”. If not, why not? Be specific.)
2. Reconstruction (writing generally, what was meant by “reconstruction”? Who, when, and where was this in effect, and why? Compare the various plans for Reconstruction and their fates. Did Reconstruction come to an end and, if not, why not? If it did, discuss the circumstances that brought the Reconstruction era to a close.)
3. The Progressives (who were they? What did they advocate? Discuss at least two examples of Progressive initiatives or legislation)
4. The impact of immigration in the second half of the 19th Century. (this is a classic “who,
what, why, where, and when situation: that is, who were the immigrant groups, where
did they come from, why did they immigrate, and what happened to these groups after
arriving in America? It is not intended that you write a history of immigration - hit the
broad points that capture the generic immigrant experience).
5. Industrialization. Give three examples that illustrate the driving forces of industrialization between the end of the Civil War and about 1900. Discuss both positive and negatives consequences thereof.
6. Acquisition of overseas empire. By the early 1900s, the United States had in several different ways, acquired considerable territory beyond its continental borders (what today we’d call the Lower 48). Describe how this occurred. Give at least three examples of territory that the United States gained during this time and how it happened.
FOR EXTRA CREDIT, YOU MAY WRITE ON ONE ADDITIONAL QUESTION
SOME THOUGHTS ON STRATEGY
By far and away, the single most important strategy you can apply here or on any exam is to read the question. I mean READ THE QUESTION!! Do not attempt to answer until you are sure you know what is being asked.
In the short answer questions, keep in mind that if any part of a statement is wrong, then you must consider it wrong or, for the True-False section, false. In the Multiple Choice section, you have to first analyze the question to be sure what it is actually asking. Then you have to think about the four options for answer. How does each one match up to the question? Again, the statement has to be completely correct. Even if part of it is true, if the rest is not, you have to assume that that isn’t the answer.
The general rules for writing any essay still apply. For example, a long answer is futile if it answers a question that wasn’t asked. Take some time before getting into the essay to organize your thoughts. Once you’ve written a draft, pause and ask yourself “have I covered everything important and have I given appropriate weight to the things I chose to discuss?” You have plenty of time. And you have access to your texts and other sources. It’s not a race and there’s no prize for finishing first. So, take your time, be careful, think! If you skip a question, don’t forget to go back to it.
While you shouldn’t need to, you can use any source available to you (including the internet) but you MUST (!!!!) cite it fully. What does “fully” mean? It means, can I verify what you wrote if I decide to check? At a minimum, you must include a “url” or the title, author, and page number of a referenced book. If you get stuck on a citation, there is a document on footnoting up on Blackboard.
And please do not just cut-and-paste sections out of a Google hit or a Wikipedia page. You can cite sources to your heart’s content. Short quotes are fine. But, overall, the narrative development must be your own.
In my experience, there are always three basic problems students struggle with:
Not reading the question carefully enough to understand what it is really asking;
lack of clarity and coherent development. That is, while the person may know the information, there is a crippling inability to present it in an organized, logically developed manner.
Not answering all the elements of the question. A partial answer, no matter how articulate and informative it is, is still a partial answer.
In the vast majority of cases, these points have a common solution: SLOW DOWN!
By the second point, I don’t necessarily mean that the information wasn’t there. What I mean is that the information lacked structure. Remember, part of what makes a satisfying historical narrative is the progression of the information from a logical and sensible beginning through to an equally logical and sensible stop. The longer the answer, the more true this is. Develop your response well enough to answer the question asked thoroughly without getting too flowery and by resisting the urge to wander. Strive for clarity. Stay absolutely focused on just what the question is asking. When you’ve answered it, stop.
And don’t write too much. Longer is not always better. I do not evaluate your work based on mere length or the appearance of sophistication. I evaluate your effort on the quality and sensible development of appropriate information included. Answer the question, answer it as thoroughly as you can, then stop!
And 5-syllable words are not better than simpler ones if they make the narrative harder for a reader to digest. Nobody’s going to be impressed with your command of the thesaurus if it comes at the expense of clarity.
Be sure to provide examples, dates, and specific details as appropriate. This is very, very important. I expect you to include these wherever it is reasonable to do so and not doing so will cost points.
Last but by no means least, do not presume knowledge on my part. What I mean is, write out your answers as if explaining the topic to someone who does not know the subject. Proceed logically, point to point. Don’t assume I’ll fill-in-the-gaps in your narrative because I won’t. Again, this is very important the longer your answers are. It’s easy to skip from A to B to D, assuming the reader will instinctively fill in “C”. Don’t do that!
OTHER USEFUL INFORMATION (with apologies for some redundancy):
In the multiple choices especially, read the question carefully and then read all four possible answers. Even if you don’t know the answer directly, you can often figure it out from what you already know. Sometimes, other information elsewhere in the exam will trigger the answer for you. Two answers may appear similar but, if you think about them, one will be more correct. The answer will be the most obvious, most logical, most reasonable choice. Except by accident, there are no “off the wall” or obscure or deliberately devious questions.
Think about dates. Even if you don’t know the answer directly, you can often figure it out by deducing when something reasonably could or could not have happened.
In any of the narrative questions, always review your answers to make sure they are complete and logically developed. And very importantly, be sure your response answers the question that was asked. No matter how brilliant an answer, I cannot give credit if it does not directly and completely answer the specific question asked.
I would suggest that you read through the entire exam before answering anything. This is amazingly effective for getting your mind’s processes to work, even if you aren’t conscious of it.
Let me emphasize, this is not a race. Don’t hurry just to get done. You have two great advantages here: time and resources. Use them.
FINALLY, REVIEW YOUR WORK! RUN SPEELCHECK AND GRAMMAR-CHEEK. PROOF, PROOF, PROOF!!!
