pols 155 american government
POLS 155 Dr. Nabulsi
CSUN Spring 2017
Study Guide 2
10 Congress
Multiple-Choice Questions
3. What best explains the overwhelming advantage incumbents possess in seeking reelection?
a. additional financial support from constituent taxes
b. additional financial support from the federal government campaign fund
c. congressional staff in home districts and access to district taxes
d. name recognition, access to media, and useful connections
e. name recognition, free postage, and access to district taxes
4. __________ is the process of allotting congressional seats to each state according to its proportion of the population.
a. Apportionment b. Appropriations c. Delegation d. Gerrymandering e. Redistricting
5. Which of the following is a classic form of gerrymandering?
a. markup b. overriding c. packing d. reapportionment e. redistricting
8. The only way to stop a Senate filibuster is with __________.
a. a cloture vote b. a party caucus c. a pocket veto d. the closed rule e. the open rule
12. Democrats who created the Blue Dog Coalition to work for budget cuts and increased defense spending were primarily responding to which influence?
a. constituent b. ideology c. interest group d. party e. president
14. What is one of the surest ways to kill a bill?
a. attach it as a rider b. discharge petition c. let it die in conference committee
d. pocket veto e. presidential veto
16. Members of Congress who vote based on the preferences of their constituents are acting as __________.
a. delegates b. logrollers c. politicos d. riders e. trustees
18. Why are there currently 435 members in the House of Representatives?
a. The Constitution requires a specific ratio of representatives to constituents.
b. The Constitution stipulates this number. c. The number has changed to reflect gerrymandering.
d. The number has grown each decade, according to census data. e. The number is fixed at this limit by a statute.
21. The president pro tempore __________.
a. has the power to nullify legislation with a pocket veto b. has the power to select the majority leader
c. is an honorific office awarded to the senior senator of the majority party
d. is a role bequeathed to the vice president by the Constitution
e. personally presides over the Senate floor when it is in session
25. __________ committees exist in both the House and Senate, may be temporary or permanent, and usually have a focused responsibility.
a. Conference b. Joint c. Select/special d. Standing e. Temporal
26. __________ committees pass the laws that set policy, whereas __________ committees determine funding levels.
a. Authorizing, appropriations b. Authorizing, oversight c. Authorizing, revenue
d. Budget, appropriations e. Budget, revenue
27. A unanimous consent agreement specifies __________.
a. when a bill will be taken up on the House floor, what amendments will be considered, and when a vote will be taken
b. when a bill will be taken up on the Senate floor, what amendments will be considered, and when a vote will be taken
c. whether a bill reaches the House floor under a closed rule, restricted rule, or open rule
d. whether a bill reaches the Senate floor under a closed rule, restricted rule, or open rule
e. whether a bill reaches the Senate floor without a discharge petition
31. According to the delegate model of representation, legislators are __________.
a. expected to represent the views of their constituents b. free to vote as they please, whether constituents like it or not
c. obligated to follow a strict interpretation of the Constitution d. obliged to use their personal opinions in decision making
e. trusted to follow a strict interpretation of the Constitution
36. Who among the following is never allowed to introduce a bill in Congress?
a. a party whip b. the president pro tempore c. the president
d. the Senate majority leader e. the Speaker of the House
38. Packing and cracking both draw district lines in the favor of the majority party, and thus, are two types of __________.
a. gerrymandering b. lawmaking c. logrolling d. oversight e. reapportionment
40. A special joint committee created to reconcile differences in bills passed by the House and Senate is called a(n) __________ committee.
a. arbitration b. conference c. negotiation d. select/special e. standing
41. Congressional Member Organizations, or member caucuses, are __________.
a. allowed to introduce legislation b. not allowed to be bipartisan
c. not allowed to cross House–Senate lines d. promoters of shared legislative interests e. rarely bipartisan
44. Charged with the responsibility to __________, the __________ is almost certainly the most powerful committee in either chamber of Congress.
a. set targets for spending and taxes, the House Budget Committee
b. investigate the performance of government, House Oversight and Government Reform Committee
c. make decisions about money for authorized programs, the Senate Appropriations Committee
d. oversee nominations and the Department of Justice, Senate Judiciary Committee
e. grant and set procedural rules, House Rules Committee
45. This individual keeps close contact with all members of his or her party, counts votes for key legislation, prepares summaries of bills, and acts as a communications link within the party.
a. committee chairperson b. majority/minority leader c. majority/minority whip
d. president pro tempore e. Speaker of the House
46. What is the typical trajectory of a bill in the House of Representatives?
a. introduction, committee referral, rules committee, subcommittee, full committee report, full House vote, conference committee, send to president
b. introduction, committee referral, subcommittee, full committee report, rules committee, conference committee, send to president, full House vote
c. introduction, committee referral, subcommittee, full committee report, rules committee, full House vote, conference committee, send to president
d. introduction, committee referral, subcommittee, rules committee, full committee report, conference committee, full House vote, send to president
e. introduction, subcommittee, committee referral, full committee report, rules committee, full House vote, conference committee, send to president
47. Which is an example of logrolling in Congress?
a. awarding a government contract to a campaign supporter b. introducing and sponsoring a bill
c. sponsoring a bill in exchange for federal monies d. supporting a bill in exchange for support of one’s own bill
e. working to get federal monies for an interstate highway
48. You are a member of the House of Representatives, and wish to introduce a bill. What do you do?
a. announce the bill on the floor after a motion to the presiding officer
b. announce the bill on the floor and by memo to your colleagues c. offer the bill as an amendment to pending legislation
d. offer the bill to the Speaker of the House e. place the bill in the hopper
50. Which response best reflects the dilemma of earmarks?
a. Earmarks are beneficial to taxpayers but detrimental to reelection.
b. Earmarks favor federal employees at the expense of state employees.
c. Earmarks favor one district at the expense of all American taxpayers.
d. Earmarks are always wasteful expenditures but are useful to politicians.
e. Earmarks are typically beneficial to districts but allow the federal government to collect an undue share of tax revenue.
51. One example of the Framers’ intent to insulate the Senate from the tyranny of the majority was to __________.
a. give members lifetime appointments b. give the Senate authority to overturn a presidential veto without House ratification
c. give the Senate authority to overturn a Supreme Court decision
d. have members appointed by incumbent senators e. have members appointed by their respective state legislatures
52. How are committee chairs selected in the House?
a. a subject knowledge test b. interviews to determine party loyalty
c. joint decision of the majority and minority leaders d. seniority within the committee
e. seniority within the party
53. Which kind of committee can be convened to conduct a special investigation in the event of a major scandal?
a. conference b. investigative c. joint d. judiciary e. standing
54. Which example best demonstrates a legislator acting as a trustee of his or her constituency?
a. A legislator considers public opinion, refining it with information and careful thought.
b. A legislator does whatever is best for his or her reelection.
c. A legislator follows the public opinion of his or her constituency.
d. A legislator heeds public opinion in every case, except in matters of personal conscience.
e. A legislator may follow his or her conscience unless public opinion is clear.
55. The Jack Abramoff bribery scandal prompted Congress to enact new ethics rules, starting in 2007. Under these new rules, members of Congress ___________.
a. may accept meals, but not gifts, from lobbyists b. may accept payment for making speeches and attending events
c. may accept small gifts from lobbyists, but they must be reported
d. may not accept free travel for any reason e. may not accept gifts, travel, or meals from lobbyists
57. How have the ideological positions of the two parties in Congress shifted over the last two decades?
a. Both Republicans and Democrats have become more conservative.
b. Both Republicans and Democrats have become more liberal.
c. Both Republicans and Democrats have become more moderate.
d. Both Republicans and Democrats have stayed the same ideologically.
e. Republicans have become more liberal and Democrats have become more conservative.
58. Although most incumbents are reelected with ease, the price may be the necessity ___________.
a. to caucus with the opposing party b. to forego running for leadership positions
c. to give up seniority d. to resign from a committee assignment e. to run a permanent campaign
60. What was the origin of the dispute resulting in the 2012 Super Committee?
a. constitutional prohibition on raising the debt ceiling b. constitutional prohibition on federal borrowing
c. inability to balance the budget d. Democrat desire to cut social program funding
e. Republican desire to raise taxes
True-False Questions
61. The House currently has 435 members, but this number increases every ten years with the taking of the census, as mandated by the Constitution.
62. Appropriations committees help determine the programs that will be funded, while authorizations committees determine the amount of monies to be distributed.
63. “Markup” refers to pencil marks left on a bill after a committee or subcommittee finishes modifying or amending it.
66. The Framers purposely rigged Congress to be inefficient.
67. A rider is an addendum to a bill. It must be related to the bill, and intended to secure or defeat its passage.
71. The vast majority of bills receive a subcommittee hearing, but not full passage.
74. The Constitution stipulates that each House member must reside in the district he or she represents.
75. The U.S. Constitution enumerates the powers of Congress as specific and limited rather than implied.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
76. The __________ process, which leads to the removal of the president, is Congress’s ultimate oversight of the executive branch.
77. __________ is the counterpart to the majority leader in the House opposition party.
78. __________ committees are standing committees that include members from both houses of Congress, and are set up to conduct investigations or special studies.
79. Congress may override a presidential veto with a(n) __________ vote in each chamber.
80. The Constitution specifies that the presiding officer of the Senate is the vice president; however, the __________ presides in the vice president’s absence.
81. A presidential veto may prompt a(n) __________, which requires a two-thirds majority vote in both the House and Senate.
82. A ______ is a provision attached to a bill—to which it may or may not be related—in order to secure the bill’s passage or defeat.
83. After the Speaker, the next most powerful person in the House is the __________. majority leader
84. Democrats and Republicans meet at their party __________ at the beginning of each new Congress to nominate or elect their party officers.
85. Cloture is the only way to end a(n) __________.
86.Al Franken was the junior Senator from Minnesota when the __________ appointed him to preside over the Senate in his stead.
88. Because the Senate lacks a rules committee, it relies instead on a __________, negotiated by the majority and minority leaders, to govern consideration of a bill.
89. __________ decides who shall be recognized to speak on the House floor, and rules on points of order (with advice from the parliamentarian), among other responsibilities.
90. Because they continue from one Congress to the next, __________ committees are permanent fixtures to which bills are referred for consideration.
11 The Presidency
Multiple-Choice Questions
2. Which institutional resource is closest to the president?
a. Executive Office of the President b. White House staff c. the Cabinet
d. the vice president e. Joint Chiefs of Staff
4. Which of these became an official presidential qualification in 1951 with the ratification of the Twenty-Second Amendment?
a. natural born citizen b. at least 35 years old c. resident of the United States for two years
d. a maximum of two terms e. a college degree
5. What is executive privilege?
a. the ability to refuse to spend money appropriated by Congress b. the ability to veto programmatic requests in a bill
c. the power to declare war or initiate a police action d. the right to direct the policy of federal agencies
e. the right to keep communications confidential to the presidency
13. What has to happen in Congress before the president can be impeached?
a. The House can impeach the president by a simple majority; the Senate does not have a vote.
b. The Senate can impeach the president by a simple majority; the House does not have a vote.
c. The House can impeach the president by a simple majority; the Senate needs a two-thirds majority.
d. The Senate can impeach the president with a two-thirds majority; the House does not have a vote.
e. The House and Senate must both have a two-thirds majority.
15. Throughout most of its history, which was considered an insignificant office?
a. attorney general b. chief of staff c. secretary of state d. Speaker of the House
e. vice president
19. Which of the following is an example of the rally-round-the-flag effect?
a. George H. W. Bush was reelected after winning the first Gulf War.
b. Jimmy Carter gained respect during his handling of the Iranian hostage crisis.
c. During the Watergate investigation, Richard Nixon’s approval ratings soared.
d. George W. Bush’s popularity was boosted following the 9/11 terrorist attacks.
e. Ronald Reagan’s approval rating increased sharply during the Iran-Contra scandal.
20. The use of __________ in foreign matters is an example of the president acting as a global leader.
a. pocket vetoes b. executive privilege c. executive agreements
d. executive orders e. signing statements
24. What role was Thomas Jefferson performing as president when he made the Louisiana Purchase?
a. chief executive b. chief diplomat c. chief legislator d. commander in chief
e. chief of state/head of state
25. What role does a president play when celebrating a national holiday?
a. chief of state/head of state b. chief of staff c. chief diplomat d. chief legislator
e. chief executive
32. Appointing which group is the first major job for the president-elect?
a. the White House staff b. the Executive Office of the President
c. the National Security Council d. the Cabinet e. the Supreme Court
35. When Abraham Lincoln imposed a blockade of Confederate shipping, he claimed inherent powers under which constitutional requirement?
a. war power b. take care clause c. pardon power d. veto power e. vesting clause
39. Why does the perception of a mandate matter in presidential politics?
a. Since public approval has become much more important to modern presidents, most presidents rely on the mandate and the polls to measure their popularity and increase their approval ratings.
b. The presidential mandate claimed by modern presidents makes it easier for them to get their choices of Supreme Court justices approved than in the past.
c. Because Congress sees the president as holding a mandate of the people, the legislators do not block the president’s agenda as vehemently as legislators in the past did.
d. The president’s mandate consists of the modern perception among members of Congress that, by virtue of having been elected, the president has the ability to manage the bureaucracy.
e. Because modern presidents are more dependent on the people for election and more involved in policy making than early presidents, they are prone to claim the mandate of the people when governing.
41. Which of the following statements best characterizes the nature of the conflict between presidents and Congress?
a. The conflict is a by-product of the weakening of American political parties.
b. The conflict is integral to the design of the Constitution, deliberately intended by the authors of the constitution.
c. The conflict is a by-product of the recent polarization of the American party system.
d. The conflict is a by-product solely of divided government.
e. The conflict intensifies when Republicans control the presidency and Democrats control Congress.
43. How has the office of vice president changed over the years?
a. The vice president is no longer trusted as he once was.
b. The vice president, who once was very involved, is now frozen out of the policy-making process.
c. The vice president has been more involved in the policy-making process in recent years than in the past.
d. The vice president used to be involved in important tasks, but now spends most of his time acting as a figurehead.
e. The vice presidency has become a prerequisite for the presidency.
50. What distinguishes the modern presidency from the institution originally envisioned by the Framers of the Constitution?
a. The modern presidency has become the central focus of American politics since the 1930s, supplanting Congress as the “first branch” of government.
b. The modern presidency is less involved in the development of foreign policy than the Framers intended.
c. Modern presidents exhibit a greater level of deference to Congress in budgetary matters than the Framers intended.
d. Modern presidents are much less democratic than the Framers intended.
e. Modern presidents are more cautious in advocating for their legislative agendas than the Framers intended.
52. What was the turning point that gave rise to the modern institutional presidency?
a. the social strife arising from the civil rights movement
b. the economic and social turmoil of the Great Depression
c. the demands of managing a modern army during World War I
d. the rise and importance of television as a mechanism that brought the president into the living rooms of American citizens
e. the rapid contraction of government following the conclusion of World War II
53. Why was it significant that George Washington was the first person elected to the presidency?
a. His ambitions greatly expanded the powers of the presidency.
b. His early actions served to establish important precedents that greatly increased the political legitimacy of the office.
c. His military leadership as president was critical during the War of 1812.
d. His ambitions set up an early struggle between Congress and the presidency.
e. His early actions served to weaken the office of the presidency, making it subservient to Congress for much of American history.
55. How does the White House staff differ from the president’s Cabinet?
a. The White House staff has greater access to and more influence on the president than the Cabinet.
b. The Cabinet has more access to the president than the White House staff.
c. The president can fire the White House staff but only Congress can dismiss a member of the Cabinet.
d. The Cabinet is less democratic and less accountable than the White House staff.
e. The White House staff has less specialized policy knowledge than the Cabinet.
57. Why was the Twenty-Fifth Amendment to the Constitution adopted?
a. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding presidential powers to conduct war
b. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the role of the vice president should the president die or become incapacitated
c. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the president’s powers to negotiate treaties
d. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the separate election of the vice president
e. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the separation of powers between the executive branch and the legislative branch
58. Which of the following is a major concern surrounding current congressional-presidential relations?
a. Presidents are delegating too many constitutional powers to Congress.
b. The principle of the separation of powers is eroding in favor of expanded congressional power.
c. The principle of the separation of powers is eroding in favor of expanded presidential power.
d. Congress is overriding presidential vetoes too easily, effectively ending the Madisonian system of checks and balances.
e. Congressional oversight over the bureaucracy is making it impossible for presidents to carry out executive functions.
60. What is a possible problem of the War Powers Resolution (1973) as written?
a. It makes Congress too powerful in the conduct of war.
b. It runs counter to the intentions of the Framers by diminishing the separation of powers between the two branches of government in favor of Congress.
c. It gives Congress the power to wage war without the president’s consent.
d. It gives the president the power to wage short-term wars without congressional approval.
e. It gives the president too much discretion in allocating how funds are used in war.
True-False Questions
62. The president may grant pardons to anyone convicted of a federal crime for any reason.
63. When a bill is sent to Congress, the president is not allowed to encourage specific members of Congress to vote for the bill.
66. Congress has the sole authority to declare war.
67. A parliamentary government elects prime ministers from the parliament.
68. If a president does not sign or veto a bill within ten days after receiving it, the bill does not become law.
69. The Framers originally decided that the vice president would be the presidential candidate who received the second most Electoral College votes.
71. The Framers included a two-term limit to the presidency in the Constitution.
74. Joan O’Leary wants to run for president. She is a natural-born citizen of the United States. She is 45 years old. She has been a resident of the United States for 10 years. Therefore, she meets the requirements to become president.
75. If Barack Obama wants to disapprove individual items within a spending bill rather than the bill in its entirety, he can use the line-item veto.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
76. The idea that the president may be advised by executive branch officials in confidence without the advice becoming public is called __________.
77. As a result of the __________ scandal, Richard Nixon resigned to avoid impeachment and a Senate trial.
78. The __________ address has become one of the most important tools a president can use to call attention to the presidential agenda.
79. A __________ is a binding and public agreement between the United States and one or more nations, requiring mutual action toward a common goal.
80. The __________ is the president’s loyal assistant who oversees the flow of information in and out of the White House.
81. The __________ is an advisory group chosen by presidents to help them make decisions and execute laws.
82. The Budget and Accounting Act of 1921 created the __________ authority of the president, although the use of that authority was later sharply curtailed in 1974.
83. In the role of __________, presidents have argued that they have inherent power to respond to emergencies and protect the safety of Americans and the security of the United States.
84. The power of the veto depends on how difficult it will be to __________ a president’s decision.
85. The president would seek the advice of the __________ regarding how much the administration should propose to spend for each government program.
86. According to the Twenty-Fifth Amendment, if a vacancy occurs in the office of the vice president, the __________ appoints a new vice president.
87. If a president wants to appoint a particularly controversial nominee to office without Senate confirmation, he or she may choose to use the __________ while Congress is on a formal break.
88. According to the Constitution, __________ should be reserved for serious criminal offenses, not political conflicts.
89. The Framers were concerned that giving the president too much power would lead to a __________.
90. After the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, George W. Bush and Congress added the Department of Homeland Security to the executive body known as the __________.
12 The Federal Bureaucracy and the Public Policy Process
Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The __________ is a form of organization that delivers goods and services at the lowest cost through specialization of jobs, close supervision of employees, and uniform regulations and procedures.
a. administration b. bureaucracy c. cabinet d. civil service e. iron triangle
2. What are the four broad types of departments and agencies for which federal employees work?
a. federal departments, state departments, independent agencies, and independent regulatory commissions
b. departments, cabinets, independent agencies, and independent regulatory commissions
c. departments, administrations, independent agencies, and independent regulatory commissions
d. departments, independent stand-alone agencies, independent regulatory commissions, and government corporations
e. federal departments, state departments, agencies, and government corporations
3. Which of the following is a nongovernmental organization that seeks to influence public policy through research and education?
a. citizen action group b. think tank c. special-interest group d. political party
e. independent regulatory commission
5. __________ are rules created by government agencies that determine how laws are implemented.
a. Policies b. Procedures c. Regulations d. Standards e. Statutes
6. Which law designates the steps that federal agencies must follow in issuing rules and regulations?
a. the Administrative Procedure Act b. the Freedom of Information Act c. the Hatch Act
d. the Pendleton Act e. the Privacy Act
9. __________ refers to the authority of administrators in the federal bureaucracy to make choices concerning the best way to implement policies.
a. Adjudication b. Discretion c. Division of labor d. Independence e. Rule-making
12. Cabinet secretaries are appointed by __________ and confirmed by __________.
a. the president; the Senate b. the president; the House of Representatives
c. the president; the Supreme Court d. the Senate; the president
e. the House of Representatives; the Supreme Court
16. On what basis are people hired to be part of the Senior Executive Service?
a. their loyalty to the president b. their party affiliation c. their length of service in government
d. their experience in international diplomacy e. their leadership and management skills
21. Which of the following best describes the distinction between the policy agenda and problems?
a. Problems are a result of physical realities, while the agenda comes from people.
b. The agenda comes from many sources, while problems generally come from one.
c. The agenda is a direct product of politics, while problems are distinct from politics.
d. The agenda arises from events, while problems are difficulties caused by those events.
e. Problems are created when policy makers put them on the agenda, which is a list of a political party’s goals.
24. One purpose of the Administrative Procedure Act is to __________.
a. ensure opportunities for public participation in the rule-making process
b. give federal agencies greater discretion in the rule-making process
c. streamline bureaucratic activities in the rule-making process
d. give the president greater control over the rule-making process
e. discourage agencies from drafting new regulations
26. Which of the following is an example of a distributive policy?
a. Social Security b. welfare program c. Head Start d. job-training program
e. food stamps
27. Which of the following is an example of a government corporation?
a. the Food and Drug Administration b. the Federal Elections Commission c. Amtrak
d. the Occupational Safety and Health Administration e. the Environmental Protection Agency
29. What are the three sides of an iron triangle?
a. a federal department or agency, the president, and a set of interest groups
b. a federal department or agency, a set of interest groups, and a House and/or Senate committee
c. a set of interest groups, a House and/or Senate committee, and a public opinion group
d. a federal department or agency, a House and/or Senate committee, and the president
e. a House and/or Senate committee, a set of interest groups, and a set of campaign contributors
33. Which statement best describes what political scientists call a nondecision in the public policy process?
a. The policy problem was based on a false assumption. b. The process stops before final action.
c. The process is completed but policy is never implemented. d. No policy problem is identified.
e. The process does not begin.
39. How do government corporations differ from private companies?
a. Government corporations perform activities that private companies cannot.
b. Government corporations cannot borrow money, whereas private companies can.
c. Government corporations cannot sell stock, whereas private companies can.
d. Government corporations can borrow money, whereas private companies cannot.
e. Government corporations need less government oversight than private companies.
40. How are independent regulatory commissions similar to independent stand-alone agencies?
a. Both are headed by a single administrator. b. Both are part of the president’s Cabinet.
c. Both operate outside of executive department control. d. Both are allowed to charge for their services.
e. Both perform activities that private investors cannot.
45. Which of the following groups is likely to have the most influence over the construction of regulations during the rule-making stage of the policy process?
a. citizens b. interest groups c. Congress d. the president e. a department or agency
47. Which of the following would be an example of a redistributive policy?
a. an increase in defense spending to build more ships b. an improvement program for national parks
c. an educational program for poor minority high school students
d. an educational program to provide additional training for air traffic controllers
e. funding to build a new cross-country interstate
51. Under what circumstance are bureaucrats most likely to exercise discretion?
a. when an agency is creating environmental regulations
b. when an agency is under congressional investigation
c. when an agency is implementing a law that contains ambiguity
d. when an agency is elevated to the status of a Cabinet department
e. when an agency is proposing legislation
52. How did the British Petroleum oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico illustrate what can happen when a government agency has too much control over an industry and the two develop a “cozy relationship”?
a. The agency in charge of setting safety standards for oil and gas drilling also issued permits to the oil industry, which created a conflict of interest.
b. British Petroleum was contributing large amounts of money to the campaign of the congressional representatives in charge of setting safety standards for oil and gas drilling, which created a conflict of interest.
c. The political appointee who headed the agency in charge of issuing permits held stock in the oil and gas industry and used his influence to push the department in charge of safety standards to look the other way.
d. A member of the oil industry served on the independent regulatory commission that set safety standards for oil and gas drilling, which created a conflict of interest.
e. The Department of the Interior, which set safety standards for oil and gas drilling, did not properly supervise the agency in charge of issuing permits, and that agency and BP had a close relationship.
53. Which of the following public policy approach might result from a view that hard work does not necessarily pay off?
a. support for privatization of Social Security b. an increase in the interest on student loans
c. an expansion of job training programs d. trade agreements to open new markets overseas
e. reductions in the food stamp program
56. How does an iron triangle work in creating change in public policy?
a. Members of Congress protect their constituencies and interest groups; constituencies reelect the congressional representatives and give money to interest groups; and interest groups support members of Congress and their constituencies.
b. Interest groups provide funds to members of Congress and their constituencies, who in turn pressure the president to push through policies the interest groups want, at which point constituencies will give their economic support to interest groups.
c. Members of Congress protect agencies and interest groups; agencies give special services to interest groups and congressional representatives’ constituencies; and interest groups support members of Congress and agencies.
d. Agencies supply services to the public and in return the public supports agency activities, which puts pressure on Congress to pass laws in favor of the agencies.
e. Members of Congress from the same political party as the president support the president’s policies and protect agencies that do the same; in return, the agencies help both when election time comes around.
57. Iron triangles have been replaced by issue networks for which of the following reasons?
a. The increase in corporate-sponsored interest groups made one corner of the iron triangle too powerful.
b. Because interest groups no longer have the kinds of influence they once had, public opinion as gleaned through polls has taken their place.
c. Fewer numbers of small, highly specialized groups has made one corner of the iron triangle less functional.
d. Issue networks consist of large numbers of individuals who are specialized in different fields and can provide Congress with needed information that the members of the iron triangle could not.
e. Increasing numbers of small, highly specialized groups have made one corner of the iron triangle harder to fill with a steady occupant.
True-False Questions
65. An incremental policy causes a dramatic change in the government’s role, whereas a punctuating policy makes only a small adjustment in an existing program.
70. Because the bureaucracy is so complex and full of red tape, citizens do not have much recourse when they are dissatisfied with public policy other than voting to change their representatives.
71. Regulations are usually created by Congress.
72. The policy process does not vary greatly throughout the world other than in the level of influence citizens have on the process.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
76. The federal bureaucracy consists of the departments, agencies, and offices within the __________that perform the functions of government.
77. According to the __________ Act, federal agencies must solicit public comments before issuing new rules and regulations.
78. Under __________, jobs in the federal bureaucracy are awarded on the basis of skills and expertise.
79. __________ often holds oversight hearings to investigate the policies and performance of agencies and departments in the federal bureaucracy.
80. A specific course of action that government takes to address a problem is called __________.
81. After a president nominates an individual to be a Cabinet secretary, that appointment must confirmed by __________.
82. When Congress reads agency reports, monitors budgets, and routinely pays attention to the ways agencies are running, it is engaging in __________ oversight.
83. When the U.S. Department of Transportation stipulates how many hours truck drivers can be on the road per week, the department is creating a(n) __________.
84. National parks and the interstate highway system are both examples of a __________ policy. distributive
85. An __________ is a special kind of independent agency whose independence is protected by Congress so the agency is insulated from congressional and presidential control.
86. A redistributive policy is also referred to as a __________ game.
87. When the Environmental Protection Agency sets standards for air pollution, it is fulfilling the __________ function of the federal bureaucracy.
88. The purpose of the __________ was to prohibit federal employees from engaging in partisan political activities.
89. One consequence of ambiguity in the laws passed by Congress is that government agencies exercise __________ in the implementation of those laws.
90. One function of __________ is to provide public services that the private sector is unwilling or unable to do.
13 The Judiciary: The Balancing Branch
Multiple-Choice Questions
3. The __________ Act of 1789 established the basic three-tiered structure of the federal court system.
a. Federal Courts b. Appellate c. Confirmation d. Interpretation e. Judiciary
4. How many justices currently serve on the Supreme Court?
a. five b. six c. twelve d. nine e. eight
5. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court first claim the right of judicial review?
a. Chishom v. Georgia b. Brown v. Board of Education c. United States v. Nixon
d. Dred Scott v. Sandford e. Marbury v. Madison
7. __________ law governs relations between individuals and defines their legal rights.
a. Criminal b. Judicial c. Civil d. Tort e. Adversary
14. What is known as the power to interpret the Constitution?
a. adversary system b. judicial review c. common law d. justiciable dispute
e. constitutional law
15. Which of the following represents the federal government in the Supreme Court?
a. attorney general b. president c. Speaker of the House d. solicitor general e. chief prosecutor
18. Which of the following is the authority vested in a particular court to hear and decide the issues in a particular case?
a. jurisdiction b. judicial review c. jurisprudence d. confirmation e. filibuster
23. A(n) __________ brief is submitted by someone who is not a party to the case.
a. amicus curiae b. appellate c. habeas corpus d. outsider e. coram nobis
25. The U.S. courts of appeals are divided into __________ judicial circuits in the states and U.S. territories; another court of appeal is located in the District of Columbia.
a. nine b. twelve c. thirteen d. eleven e. six
26. The ruling in which of the following cases struck down state-mandated segregation in public schools?
a. Gideon v. Wainwright b. McCulloch v. Maryland c. Brown v. Board of Education
d. Marbury v. Madison e. Plessy v. Ferguson
28. Who attempted to expand the number of Supreme Court justices in 1937?
a. Chief Justice Warren b. President Hoover c. Chief Justice Marshall
d. President Roosevelt e. President Wilson
29. Proponents of which of the following believe that judges should use their power broadly to further justice?
a. judicial restraint b. judicial constructionism c. judicial activism
d. judicial originalism e. judicial implementation
30. Federal courts have writ of __________ jurisdiction, or the power to release persons from custody if a judge determines they are not being detained constitutionally.
a. amicus b. curiae c. certiorari d. in forma pauperis e. habeas corpus
34. Although the Court resolves many issues, it also sometimes __________ the case, sending it back to the lower court with instructions to act in accordance with its opinion.
a. remands b. denies c. rejects d. discards e. recommends
35. In 1869, Republicans altered the Court’s appellate jurisdiction in order to prevent Supreme Court review of the constitutionality of which type of legislation?
a. anti-slavery b. prohibition c. voter’s rights d. reconstruction e. income tax
38. Which of the following is within the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
a. federal criminal matters b. tax disputes c. military tribunals
d. controversies between the states e. property disputes
40. Just because judges make independent decisions does not mean they are free to do whatever they wish; which of the following concepts constrains judicial activism?
a. the rule of four b. judicial review c. supremacy d. originalism e. the rule of precedent
44. If you sue your neighbor over damage to your property, how are you referred to in the legal documents?
a. defendant b. prosecutor c. plaintiff d. adversary e. initiator
45. In court rulings, reliance on past decisions to formulate decisions in new cases is known as which of the following?
a. per curiam b. stare decisis c. coram nobis d. amicus curiae e. common law
46. In a process known as __________, presidents generally allow senators from the state in which a judicial vacancy occurs to block the nomination.
a. advice and consent b. presidential deference c. judicial review d. senatorial courtesy
e. Senate confirmation
47. The Supreme Court has __________ jurisdiction, the authority to hear a case essentially as a trial court would, only in cases involving ambassadors and other consuls, and cases in which a state or states are a party.
a. appellate b. circuit c. district d. constitutional e. original
50. According to the principle of __________, a court should not overturn precedent unless it is absolutely necessary.
a. original intent b. judicial review c. stare decisis d. prior restraint e. judicial privilege
52. Which of the following can modify a decision of the Supreme Court?
a. executive order b. federal statute c. lower court decision d. constitutional amendment
e. writ of certiorari
56. Who heads the entire federal judiciary?
a. the president b. the attorney general c. the solicitor general
d. the Supreme Court clerk of courts e. the chief justice of the Supreme Court
59. What could denying a writ of certiorari by the Supreme Court mean?
a. Justices wish to establish precedent. b. Justices agree with the decision of a lower court.
c. Justices are united on an issue. d. Justices may wish to avoid a political hot potato.
e. Justices may not want an issue to “percolate” in the federal courts.
True-False Questions
62. The Judiciary Act of 1789 established the federal circuit courts and district courts.
64. Litigants have an automatic right of appeal to the Supreme Court.
67. There is a constitutional right to a jury at all state and federal trials.
69. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over cases involving ambassadors and cases in which a state or states are a party.
71. The Supreme Court regularly exercises its original jurisdiction.
73. Appellate jurisdiction allows the Supreme Court to review decisions of other federal courts and agencies and appeals from state supreme court decisions that raise questions of federal law.
74. The United States has a dual system of justice.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
76. Other than the __________ jurisdiction the Constitution grants to the Supreme Court, no federal court has any jurisdiction except that granted to it by an act of Congress.
77. All district court decisions can be __________, or taken to a higher court for further review.
78. The parties that raise a civil case must have standing to __________.
79. Of all the federal courts, only the __________ is established by the Constitution.
80. Judges in the circuit courts of appeal are bound by __________, or decisions previously made by courts of appeals and the Supreme Court.
81. The circuit courts hear appeals from the __________ courts.
82. According to Figure 13.3, The Supreme Court Caseload, the size of the Supreme Court docket has grown significantly since 1930; during that same time, the number of cases heard by the Court __________.
83. In a __________, the defendant generally agrees to plead guilty to a lesser offense in order to avoid trial on a more serious offense.
84. The president, with the __________ and __________ of the Senate, appoints all federal judges.
85. Article III guarantees that the __________ of federal judges will not be reduced during their service on the bench.
86. The solicitor general handles all appeals on behalf of the __________ before the Supreme Court.
87. If a justice agrees with the majority on how the case should be decided but differs on the reasoning, that justice may write a(n) __________ opinion.
88. Justices who do not agree with the majority in a Supreme Court ruling can write __________ opinions.
89. If North Dakota sues South Dakota, the case will be heard by the __________.
90. Judicial __________ encourages deference to the policy judgments of elected branches of government.
CHAPTER 5 The California Legislature
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In May 2010, ________ percent of Californians approved of the job the legislature was doing.
a. 10 c. 30 b. 16 d. 70
2. The two most important functions of the California legislature are
a. representation and policymaking. b. representation and re-election.
c. lawmaking and raising taxes. d. oversight and blocking executive orders.
3. What are the two main jobs of a legislator?
a. monitoring California’s borders and fundraising b. representing the district and making policy
c. giving speeches and attending political party functions d. vetoing bills and pardoning citizens convicted of crimes
4. What are the two types of representation?
a. forward and reverse c. delegate and trustee b. formal and informal d. political & delegation
5. Making sure that legislation is implemented by the bureaucracy in the manner intended by the legislature is called
a. legislature practice. c. oversight. b. constituent service. d. representation.
6. Since California elections are winner-take-all elections, it has the impact of
a. excluding minorities from public office. b. excluding third parties from holding seats in the state legislature.
c. reducing the cost of running for office. d. increasing the number of women office holders.
7. Legislators
a. may represent more than one district. b. most often are defeated for re-election.
c. ignore local interests and look out for the good of the state. d. need to focus on the interests of their constituents.
8. How many members serve in the California Assembly?
a. 40 c. 75 b. 60 d. 80
9. How many members serve in the California Senate?
a. 40 c. 75 b. 60 d. 80
10. What is one of the biggest obstacles that someone encounters when running for an elected position in the state legislature?
a. giving speeches b. recruiting volunteers c. currying favor within a political party d. fundraising
11. State senate districts
a. have roughly 2 million voters. b. are roughly twice as large as assembly districts.
c. are reapportioned every five years. d. have more voters in urban districts than in rural districts.
12. Gerrymandering refers to
a. a procedure that is used by California legislators to stop a vote on a bill.
b. drawing district lines in a way that is equal for only two political parties.
c. drawing district lines in a way that favors one political party over another.
d. the recruitment of lobbyists in order to raise campaign funds.
13. What is the structure of the California legislature?
a. There are two chambers, which consist of the Assembly and Parliament.
b. There are two chambers, which consist of the House of Representatives and Senate.
c. There is only one chamber as the Senate dominates.
d. There are two chambers, which consist of the Assembly and the Senate.
14. The leader of the state senate in California is the
a. president pro tem. c. minority leader. b. speaker. d. lieutenant governor.
15. The speaker of the assembly
a. is the legislator who has served the most time. b. is not term-limited.
c. is elected by the entire assembly, generally on a party-line vote. d. is permitted to vote in the senate.
16. The leader of the California Assembly is called the
a. majority leader. c. majority pro tem. b. speaker. d. governor.
17. In California, the powers of the Speaker of the Assembly are
a. more extensive than those of the Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives. b. extremely limited.
c. constantly being redefined by the California Supreme Court. d. expanded by executive orders.
18. The committee system in the state legislature allows for
a. specialization and attention to detail on the part of legislators. b. less input by lobbyists.
c. greater input by third party leaders. d. greater public scrutiny of the legislature’s working habits.
19. Bills introduced in the legislature
a. are forwarded to the governor to be signed or vetoed.
b. must pass both houses with identical language before being sent to the governor.
c. if passed by both houses, automatically become law.
d. rarely become law.
20. What type of items may pass in California’s legislature?
a. executive orders, border disputes, and city ordinances b. county measures, laws, and city ordinances
c. laws, constitutional amendments, and resolutions d. foreign treaties, resolutions, and constitutional amendments
21. How many bills did the California legislature pass in the 2013–2014 legislative session?
a. 988 c. 1,431 b. 1,191 d. 1,970
22. The process by which members of the legislature exchange or trade votes is called
a. constituent service. c. logrolling. b. oversight function. d. filibustering.
23. What factors make the California legislature weaker in comparison to Congress?
a. the Speaker of the House, presidential recess appointments, and congressional staffers
b. logrolling, the vice president of the United States, filibusters
c. term limits, low media coverage, and the line-item veto
d. oversight, gerrymandering, court decisions
24. Term limits had at least one positive effect on the state legislature. Term limits have resulted in
a. reduced reliance on money in running campaigns. b. less influence in legislative affairs by interest groups.
c. more women being elected to the legislature. d. greater control by third parties.
25. The rules of the legislature
a. permit the majority to rule. b. favor the Democrats. c. favor the Republicans.
d. permit a minority to block important legislation.
CHAPTER 6 The Governor and the Executive Branch
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What are the major factors that cause the California governor to be invisible?
a. Media coverage of Sacramento and the governor is limited.
b. California laws forbid the governor from interacting with the media and attending social events.
c. The governor’s day-to-day responsibilities do not provide much time for public appearances.
d. The media provides more coverage of members of the Assembly and Senate than of the governor.
2. Why did Arnold Schwarzenegger’s popularity fade away in 2005?
a. He nominated Gray Davis to serve on the California Supreme Court and attended the Democratic National Convention as a keynote speaker.
b. He attended high-end fundraisers in Hollywood and allowed oil companies to drill off the coast of Santa Barbara, thereby causing a major oil spill.
c. He pursued a costly special election, and antagonized the members of his own party with his moderate positions on many issues.
d. His Terminator Five movie was a box office failure thereby causing an economic downfall for the entertainment industry.
3. What was Arnold Schwarzenegger’s approval rating at the end of his time in office?
a. 73 percent c. 38 percent b. 55 percent d. 23 percent
4. What California governor had little interest in photo opportunities?
a. Arnold Schwarzenegger c. Earl Warren b. Gray Davis d. Jerry Brown
5. All of the following are among the formal powers of the governor EXCEPT
a. vetoing legislation. c. developing a vision for the state.
b. drawing up the budget. d. organizing the executive branch.
6. The governor is the commander-in-chief of
a. all military forces stationed in California. b. the California National Guard.
c. all county sheriff’s departments. d. only the police department in Sacramento.
7. What is an example of the governor’s formal powers?
a. greeting foreign government officials b. making a public speech about the state’s budget
c. drawing up the state’s budget d. persuading legislators
8. The governor’s most significant powers are
a. acting as the commander-in-chief and making legislative recommendations.
b. preparing the state budget and using the line-item veto.
c. developing a vision for the state and managing executive actions.
d. campaigning and managing the daily tasks of the governor’s office.
9. In California, large organizations similar to federal departments that contain a number of related bureaus are called
a. franchise tax boards. c. superagencies. b. real estate tax collectors. d. political action committees.
10. Which of the following is an informal power of the governor?
a. vetoing legislation c. using the public to make his case b. granting clemency d. drawing up the budget
11. What specific area requires the governor to get the legislature’s cooperation?
a. budget c. the line-item veto b. interest group connections d. great speeches
12. One of the most important powers the governor has in terms of the budget process is the
a. appointment power. b. role of commander-in-chief. c. line-item veto.
d. day-to-day management of state agencies.
13. The California governor can use the line-item veto
a. for state appropriation measures. b. for federal appropriation measures.
c. for pardons that involve nonviolent crime. d. to control excessive spending by the state board of equalization.
14. After the primary election in 2010, Governor Schwarzenegger
a. tried to run unsuccessfully for lieutenant governor.
b. was a lame duck governor and made no public appearances.
c. campaigned actively and successfully for Proposition 14 and against Proposition 24.
d. accepted an appointment as the ambassador to Austria.
15. State employees
a. report directly to the governor. b. report only to their union representatives.
c. answer only to the legislature. d. are sometimes in agencies that are not under the control of the governor.
16. The lieutenant governor serves as acting governor when the governor is
a. out of the state. b. running for president.
c. in a major dispute with the legislature. d. the candidate of a third party.
17. The official who enforces state laws and oversees district attorneys in California is the
a. secretary of state b. controller c. attorney general d. superintendent of public instruction
18. Which state official is also a member of the state board of equalization?
a. secretary of state c. treasurer b. insurance commissioner d. controller
19. The state board of equalization is charged with the responsibility of
a. distributing state highway funds. b. auditing all state expenditures.
c. controlling the expenditures of the executive branch. d. overseeing the assessment and administration of property taxes.
20. The superintendent of public instruction is
a. a member of the state board of equalization. b. the only member of the plural executive elected on a nonpartisan basis.
c. appointed by the governor. d. oversees higher education in the state of California.
21. This member of the plural executive is a major political competitor for the governor and can set his or her own political agenda.
a. secretary of state c. superintendent of public instruction b. attorney general d. lieutenant governor
22. Who is the current lieutenant governor?
a. Cruz Bustamante c. Gavin Newsom b. Abel Maldonado d. John Garamendi
23. What is the responsibility of the secretary of state?
a. enforcing California laws b. managing California elections
c. overseeing the collection of taxes in California d. managing California’s money and investments
24. What proposition made the insurance commissioner an elected position?
a. Proposition 8 c. Proposition 75 b. Proposition 58 d. Proposition 103
25. Why is education administration a confusing policy area?
a. The board of education is appointed by the Assembly and the Senate, thereby causing philosophical differences among the board members.
b. The superintendent of public instruction shares power with an appointed board of education.
c. The superintendent of public instruction has been vacant for the last ten years thereby lacking proper leadership to administer policy.
d. The board of education oversees private schools whereas the superintendent of public instruction manages public schools.
CHAPTER 7 The California Judiciary
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Superior Courts in California adjudicate
a. civil and criminal cases. c. only criminal cases. b. only civil cases. d. appeals only.
2. California’s courts of first instance are more commonly known as
a. appellate courts. c. intermediate courts of appeal. b. superior courts. d. district courts.
3. The busiest courts in California are
a. the administrative courts. c. the appellate courts. b. the superior courts. d. the impeachment courts.
4. What is the function of California’s appellate courts?
a. answer questions raised about the U.S. Constitution and the California Constitution
b. review trial or superior court records for error
c. review judicial appointments made to the superior courts
d. issue decisions that relate to the Assembly and the Senate
5. In California, what court has judicial discretion?
a. traffic courts c. courts of appeal b. superior courts d. supreme court
6. How many superior courts are located in California?
a. 58 c. 126 b. 98 d. 187
7. The California Supreme Court rules on a variety of issues. Kleffman v. Vonage Holdings Corp. is one such example in which the state supreme court unanimously ruled that
a. all criminal defendants have a right to counsel.
b. same-sex marriage is unconstitutional in California.
c. unsolicited emails violate provisions of the California state code.
d. justices running in retention elections are prohibited from soliciting campaign donations.
8. How many judges serve on the California Supreme Court?
a. 3 c. 7 b. 5 d. 9
9. Jurisdiction refers to
a. the power of the governor to overturn decisions made by the California Supreme Court.
b. the kind of law the court handles and the geographic location.
c. the ability of the Assembly to withhold a bill before a vote within the chamber.
d. the ability of the Senate to withhold a bill before a vote within the chamber.
10. In California, Proposition 215
a. mandates that all instructions in K–12 classrooms be conducted in English.
b. bans educational, social, and medical services for people that are not legal residents.
c. provides for medical use of marijuana.
d. banned same-sex marriage.
11. Why did Proposition 215 conflict with federal law?
a. Federal law requires that emergency services cannot be denied to illegal immigrants.
b. Federal law permits marijuana to be distributed and sold in the District of Columbia.
c. Federal law mandates that for states to receive federal highway funds that the drinking age within that state must be 21.
d. Federal law classifies marijuana as a controlled substance and makes its cultivation, possession, sale, and consumption illegal.
12. How did the U.S. Supreme Court rule in Gonzales v. Raich (2005)?
a. The Supreme Court ruled that California’s term limits for members of the House of Representatives and the U.S. Senate is unconstitutional because the U.S. Constitution overrides state laws.
b. The Supreme Court ruled that California’s law that denies educational, social, and medical services to illegal immigrants is unconstitutional because the law conflicts with federal powers.
c. The Supreme Court ruled that California’s Compassionate Use Act (CUA) is legal because the activity involves intrastate commerce, thereby not warranting federal intervention.
d. The Supreme Court ruled that the commerce power gives Congress the authority to regulate and to punish the manufacture and cultivation of marijuana despite California law that allows for compassionate use.
13. Judges selected by the governor to serve on the supreme court and the court of appeals in California must be approved by the
a. state legislature. b. attorney general.
c. commission on judicial appointments. d. speaker of the assembly.
14. The Commission on Judicial Appointments consists of
a. a member of the U.S. Supreme Court, the chief justice of the California Supreme Court, and the attorney general.
b. the governor, the attorney general, a lawyer, and a member of the supreme court.
c. a member of the supreme court, a lawyer, and a presiding judge on a superior court.
d. the chief justice of the California Supreme Court, the attorney general, and a presiding judge from the court of appeals.
15. How many women serve on the California Supreme Court?
a. none c. four b. three d. six
16. Who is the current chief justice of the California Supreme Court?
a. Ronald George c. Carol Corrigan
b. Tani Gorre Cantil-Sakauye d. Goodwin Liu
17. In recent years, campaign spending in judicial elections has
a. increased. c. remained the same. b. decreased. d. become impossible to determine.
18. Chief Justice Rose Bird and Associate Justices Cruz Reynoso and Joseph Grodin were voted out by voters who were angry about their decisions dealing with
a. same-sex marriage. c. Proposition 13. b. the death penalty. d. term limits.
19. Which of the following reasons are given by people who argue that judicial elections are the best method of selection for judges?
a. Judicial elections allow judges to have greater independence.
b. Judicial elections insulate judges from politics.
c. Judicial elections allow citizens to hold judges accountable.
d. Judicial elections are the least expensive method for selecting judges.
20. The largest financial contributions to most judicial races come from
a. attorneys. c. prison guards. b. firemen and police officers. d. teachers.
21. What is significant concerning Judges Rose Bird, Cruz Reynoso, and Joseph Grodin?
a. All three were appointed by President George H. W. Bush to the U.S. Court of Appeals.
b. They are the only judges in California’s history to serve as the attorney general and supreme court judges.
c. All three served on the California Supreme Court and were removed from the bench by the voters in 1996.
d. They were the first non-lawyers to be elected to the California Supreme Court in 1986.
22. Which U.S. Supreme Court justice has been a vocal critic of state judicial elections?
a. Sonia Sotomayor c. Carol Corrigan b. Sandra Day O’Connor d. John Roberts
23. One method of removing judges in the state of California is
a. removal by the governor. b. censure by the state legislature.
c. agreement between the speaker of the assembly and the attorney general. d. a recall election.
24. Judges in California may be impeached by the state Assembly and convicted by
a. an executive order signed by the governor. b. a writ issued by the chief justice of the California Supreme Court.
c. voter approval in a special election. d. a two-thirds majority of the state Senate.
25. Most criminal cases in California are resolved through
a. plea bargaining. b. appeals to the U.S. Supreme Court. c. incarceration.
d. clemency granted by the governor.
