ACC403/ACC 403 midterm exam (Part 1 & Part 2) Midterm Exam Part 1Question 1The most common way for users to obtain reliable information is to:Answerhave an internal audit.have an independent audit.ve

ACC403/ACC 403 midterm exam (Part 1 & Part 2) 

Midterm Exam Part 1Question 1The most common way for users to obtain reliable information is to:Answerhave an internal audit.have an independent audit.verify all information individually.verify the information with management.Question 2Which of the following is not a SysTrust Services principle as defined by the AICPA?AnswerOnline privacyAvailabilityProcessing integrityOperational integrityQuestion 3One objective of an operational audit is to:Answerdetermine whether the financial statements fairly present the entity’s operations.determine if the auditee is in compliance with GAAP.make recommendations for improving performance.report on the entity’s relative success in attaining profit maximization.Question 4An accountant:Answermust possess expertise in the accumulation of audit evidence.must decide the number and types of items to test.must have an understanding of the principles and rules that provide the basis for preparing the accounting information.must be a CPA.Question 5Any service that requires a CPA firm to issue a report about the reliability of an assertion that is made by another party is a(n):Answeraccounting and bookkeeping service.attestation service.assurance service.tax service.Question 6The three requirements for becoming a CPA include all but which of the following?AnswerUniform CPA examination requirementEducational requirementsCharacter requirementsExperience requirementQuestion 7Which of the following is an element of the CPA’s quality control system that should be considered in     control policies and procedures?AnswerConsidering audit risk and materialityUsing statistical sampling techniquesAssigning personnel to engagementsComplying with laws and regulationsQuestion 8Which of the following statements best describes the primary purpose of Statements on Auditing Standards?AnswerThey are guides intended to set forth auditing procedures that are applicable to a variety of situations.They are procedural outlines that are intended to narrow the areas of inconsistency and divergence of auditor opinion.They are authoritative statements, enforced through the Code of Professional Conduct, and are intended to limit the degree of auditor judgment.They are interpretations that are intended to clarify the meaning of “generally accepted auditing standards.”Question 9Which of the following is not one of the responsibilities of an auditor under the principles underlying an audit?AnswerPossess appropriate competence and capabilitiesComply with ethical requirementsPlan work and supervise assistantsMaintain professional skepticism and exercise professional judgment5 pointsQuestion 10Within the context of quality control, the primary purpose of continuing professional education and training activities is to enable a CPA firm to provide its personnel with:Answertechnical training that assures proficiency as a valuation expert.professional education that is required in order to perform with due professional care.knowledge required to fulfill assigned responsibilities.knowledge required to perform a peer review.Question 11Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services are issued by the:AnswerAccounting and Review Services Committee.Professional Ethics Executive Committee.Securities and Exchange Commission.Financial Accounting Standards Board.Question 12The purpose of establishing quality control policies and procedures to accept or continue a client relationship is to:Answerprovide reasonable assurance that personnel are adequately trained to fulfill their responsibilities.monitor the risk factors concerning misstatements that arise from the misappropriation of assets.document objective criteria for the CPA firm’s peer review.minimize the likelihood of associating with a client whose management may lack integrity.Question 13Whenever the client imposes restrictions on the scope of the audit, the auditor should be concerned that management may be trying to prevent discovery of misstatements. In such cases, the auditor will likely issue a:Answerdisclaimer of opinion in all cases.qualification of both scope and opinion in all cases.disclaimer of opinion whenever materiality is in question.qualification of both scope and opinion whenever materiality is in question.Question 14If the phrase “except for” is present in the opinion paragraph of the audit report, the auditor has issued a(n):Answeradverse opinion.disclaimer of opinion.unqualified opinion.qualified opinion.Question 15Auditing standards for public companies are established by the:AnswerSEC.FASB.PCAOB.IRS.Question 16A CPA may wish to emphasize specific matters regarding the financial statements even though an unqualified opinion will be issued. Normally, such explanatory information is:Answerincluded in the scope paragraph.included in the opinion paragraph.included in a separate paragraph in the report.included in the introductory paragraph.Question 17When there is uncertainty about a company’s ability to continue as a going concern, the auditor’s concern is the possibility that the client may not be able to continue its operations or meet its obligations for a “reasonable period of time.” For this purpose, a reasonable period of time is considered not to exceed:Answersix months from the date of the financial statements.one year from the date of the financial statements.six months from the date of the audit report.one year from the date of the audit report.Question 18If most or all users’ decisions that are based on the financial statements are likely to be significantly affected, the materiality level is:Answerunrestricted.material.pervasive.risky.Question 19Of the four parts of the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct, which part is enforceable?AnswerEthical RulingsRules of ConductPrinciplesInterpretationsQuestion 20A CPA firm may charge a contingent fee for:Answeran audit.consulting services for a client for which they do not perform any attestation services.the preparation of an original tax return for a client for which they do not perform any attestation services.the preparation of an amended tax returnQuestion 21________ means that a person acts according to conscience, regardless of the situation.AnswerCaringFairnessIntegrityRespectQuestion 22Freedom from ________ means the absence of relationships that might interfere with objectivity or integrity.Answerindependence.acts discreditable.impartiality.conflicts of interest.Question 24Which of the following is required for a firm to designate itself “Member of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants” on its letterhead?AnswerAt least one of the partners must be a member of the AICPA.All partners must be members of the AICPA.The partners whose names appear in the firm name must be members of the AICPA.A majority of the partners must be members of the AICPA.Question 25The AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct states that a CPA should maintain integrity and objectivity. The term “objectivity” in the Code refers to a CPA’s ability to:Answerchoose independently between alternate accounting principles and auditing standards.distinguish between accounting practices that are acceptable and those that are not.be unyielding in all matters dealing with auditing procedures.maintain an impartial attitude on matters that come under the CPA’s review. 

Midterm Exam Part 2Question 1The standard of due care to which the auditor is expected to adhere to in the performance of the audit is referred to as the:Answerprudent person conceptcommon law doctrine.constructive care conceptvigilant person concept.Question 2A broad interpretation of the rights of third-party beneficiaries holds that users that the auditor should have been able to foresee as being likely users of financial statements have the same rights as those with privity of contract. This is known as the concept of:Answerforeseen users.foreseeable users.expected users.four-party contracts.Question 3If an auditor fails to fulfill a certain requirement in the contract, they may be guilty of:Answercontract fraud.breach of contract.constructive fraud.criminal neglect.5 pointsQuestion 4The preferred defense in third party suits is:Answerlack of duty to perform.Non-negligent performance.absence of causal connection.client fraud.Question 5Which of the following auditor’s defenses usually means nonreliance on the financial statements by the user?AnswerLack of dutyNonnegligent performanceAbsence of causal connectionsContributory negligenceQuestion 6Laws that have been passed by the U.S. Congress and other governmental units are:Answerstatutory laws.judicial laws.federal laws.common laws.Question 7Which of the following would most likely be deemed a direct-effect illegal act?AnswerViolation of federal employment lawsViolation of federal environmental regulationsViolation of federal income tax lawsViolation of civil rights lawsQuestion 8Management assertions are:Answerdirectly related to the financial reporting framework used by the company, usually U.S. GAAP or IFRS.stated in the footnotes to the financial statements.explicitly expressed representations about the financial statements.provided to the auditor in the assertions letter, but are not disclosed on the financial statements.Question 9In certifying their annual financial statements, the CEO and CFO of a public company certify that the financial statements comply with the requirements of:AnswerGAAP.the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.GAAS.Question 10In testing for cutoff, the objective is to determine:Answerwhether all of the current period’s transactions are recorded.whether transactions are recorded in the correct accounting period.the proper cutoff between capitalizing and expensing expenditures.the proper cutoff between disclosing items in footnotes or in account balances.Question 11The objective of an audit of the financial statements is an expression of an opinion on:Answerthe fairness of the financial statements in all material respects.the accuracy of the financial statements.the accuracy of the annual report.the accuracy of the balance sheet and income statement.Question 12“The auditor should not assume that management is dishonest, but the possibility of dishonesty must be considered.” This is an example of:Answerunprofessional behavior.an attitude of professional skepticism.due diligence.a rule in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct.Question 13An example of a document the auditor receives from the client, but which was prepared by someone outside the client’s organization, is a:Answerconfirmation.sales invoice.vendor invoice.bank reconciliation.Question 14Audit evidence has two primary qualities for the auditor; relevance and reliability. Given the choices below, which provides the auditor with the most reliable audit evidence?AnswerGeneral ledger account balancesConfirmation of accounts receivable balance received from a customerInternal memo explaining the issuance of a credit memoCopy of month-end adjusting entriesQuestion 15When practical and reasonable, U.S. auditing standards require the confirmation of:Answerindividual transactions between organizations, such as sales transactions.accounts receivable.fixed asset additions.payroll expenses.Question 16The auditor must gather sufficient and appropriate evidence during the course of the audit. Sufficient evidence must:Answerbe well documented and cross-referenced in the audit documents.be based on sources that are external to company.provide evidence that prove or disprove an audit objective/assertion.be persuasive enough to enable the auditor to issue an audit report.Question 17Which of the following statements regarding the relevance of evidence is correct?AnswerTo be relevant, evidence must pertain to the audit objective of the evidence.To be relevant, evidence must be persuasive.To be relevant, evidence must relate to multiple audit objectives.To be relevant, evidence must be derived from a system including effective internal controls.Question 18Which of the following generally provides the most reliable evidence?AnswerConfirmationsRecalculationReperformanceObservationsQuestion 19When the auditor develops supporting evidence for amounts posted to account balances with documentary evidence, that process is called:Answerinquiry.vouching.physical examination.Question 20The preliminary audit strategy:Answeris set before the auditor understands the client’s reasons for the audit.guides the development of the audit plan.is determined after the engagement staffing is set.is the detailed steps to be followed for the substantive audit tests.Question 21The two major factors affecting acceptable audit risk are:Answerinherent risk and the intended uses of the financial statements.control risk and the intended uses of the financial statements.the likely statement users and the intended uses of the statements.the audit firm and the intended uses of the statementsQuestion 22Business risk:Answeris the risk after considering the effectiveness of top management controls.is the risk that the client’s internal controls will fail.can include a new technology which threatens to erode a company’s competitive advantage.cannot be mitigated by management.Question 23Written communication that the auditor will provide reasonable assurance for the detection of fraud is found in:Answerengagement letter.representation letter.responsibility letter.client letter.Question 24Which of the following normally signs the engagement letter for an audit of a private company?AnswerManagementBoard of directors representativeAudit committee representativeCorporate treasurer

Question 25If an auditor is requested to perform nonaudit services for a public company audit client, who is responsible for agreeing to those services with the audit firm?AnswerThe client’s managementThe client’s chief executive officerThe client’s chief financial officerThe client’s audit committee