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QUESTION

Ambulatory Care Coding 80 questions.

This assignment requires Ambulatory Care Coding experience.

You CAN NOT google these questions for the answers.

Must be CPC, CCS, or RHIT certified coder.

Please check 40 that are answered, 40 that are unanswered.

Need by 09.16.2015

Ambulatory Care Coding

  1. Patient had a left femoral hemiorraphy for a recurrent hernia, what is the correct code assignment?

C. 49555

  1. A patient was taken to the endoscopy suite. The endoscopy was passed into the esophagus and continued into the duodenal bulb. Based on this documentation, what CPT code would be selected to represent this procedure?

  1. 43200

  2. 43234

  3. 43235

  4. 43260

  1. Which of the following is not coded separately from the coronary artery bypass procedure?

  1. Upper extremity artery

  2. Upper extremity vein

  3. Saphenous vein

  4. Femoropoplitear segment of a vein

  1. Which of the following CPT codes should be used for an emergency curettage due to retained placenta after normal vaginal delivery?

  1. 58120

  2. 59160

  3. 49320

  4. 59840

  1. How do you code a retropubic subtotal prostatectomy?

    B. 55831

  2. Treatment of a missed abortion, completed surgically a 22 weeks is coded as?

    C. 59821

  3. Which of the following CPT codes describes the surgical removal of kidney stones through an incision in the body of the kidney.

                D.50060

  1. The patient undergoes the closure of a nephrocutaneous fistula, how is this coded?

               B. 50520

  1. The patient provides a kidney to a sibling who has renal failure. An open procedure is performed. How is this coded?

    B. 50320

10. Principles of ICD-9-CM coding for ambulatory care encounters includes.

              A. Ambulatory care diagnoses should be coded to the highest of certainly at the conclusion of the encounter.

              B. Code suspected diagnoses as if the disease or injury existed.

C. conditions previously treated and no longer existing are coded.

D.Only the most significant diagnosis should be coded.

  1. Level  2 codes of the HCPCS coding system are maintained by the:

    D.Center for medicare and Medicaid services.

  2. J1020 injection methylprednisolone acetate, 20 mg is an example of a

    C. Level 2 code

  3. Level one of HCPCS consists of

  1. CPT codes

  1. The inclusion of a code in COT indicates that the procedure is:

  1. Commonly performed across the country

  2. Endorsed by the AMA

  3. Reimbursed by third party payers

  1. The three key components used in defining the levels of E/M services are:

  1. History, examination, medical decision making.

  1. The differences between a new patient and an established patient is whether the patient received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group of practice

  1. Within the past three years

  1. Mary Cole, who is recovering from pneumonia, returns to her physicians for follow up. Dr. Small reviews a recent x-ray, performs a problem focus examination followed by a short discussion of findings. CPT code assigned.

  1. 99212

  1. Refer to the medical decision making table in your CPT book. Given the following information determine the type of medical decision making involved. Number of diagnoses/management options _ limited, amount and/ or complexity of data reviewed _ moderate risk of complications and / or morbidity or mortality high.

  1. High complexity

  2. Low complexity

  3. Moderate complexity

  4. Straightforward

  1. Joan Harrington is required by required by her insurance company to obtain a second opinion consultation prior to undergoing a hysterectomy, she presents to Dr. Marks who conducts a comprehensive history and physical examination medical decision making is moderate. Dr. Marks concurs that the surgery is necessary. Dr. Marks assigns the following CPT code for the visit.

    B. 99244

  2. Which code is used to report anesthesia services for a Medicare patient undergoing a tranurethal resection of the prostate?

  1. 00914

  1. Cystourethroscopy with fulguration of bladder tumor (2.5 cm inside) is coded.

  1. 52235

  1. A biopsy of skin and subcutaneous tissue (3 lesions) would be coded.

    C.11643

  2. A debridement of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and muscle is coded.

C.11043

24. Bisch of procedure

  1. 63170

25. Open reduction of fracture of the distal fibula with internal fixation

  1. 27792

26. Transurethral resection of prostate following urethral dilation.

  1. 52601

27. Repeat cry cautery of the cervix.

  1. 57510

  2. 57511

  3. 57511, 57511

  4. 5713

28. Two facial lacerations are repaired with layer closure. One is 10 cm and the other is 3 cm.

  1. 12016

  2. 12035

  3. 12052, 12054

  4. 12055

29. Esophagoscopy for removal of foreign, body is coded.

  1. 43045

  2. 43200, 43215

  3. 43215

  4. 43247

30. Simple hemorrhoidectomy, internal and external with fistulectomy.

  1. 46255

  2. 43255, 46270

  3. 46257

  4. 46258

31. Arthroscopy of knew with synovial biopsy.

  1. 01382

  2. 27330

  3. 29870

  4. 29875

32. A patient develops difficulty during surgery and the physician discontinues the procedure, identify the modifier that may be reported by the physician to indicate that the procedure was discontinued.

  1. -52

  2. -53

  3. -73

  4. -74

33. EGD with laser destruction of a pedunculated polyp in the duodenum.

  1. 43250

  2. 43234, 43258

  3. 43239

  4. 43258

34. What is the correct code assignment for ligation of four hemorrhoids?

A. 46945, 46946

B. 46946

C. 46900, 46910

D. 46924

35. Which of the following is vital for determing why an insurance company paid less than expected?

  1. CPT code book

  2. The explanation of benefits

  3. Knowledge of the insurance regulation

  4. Talking to the patient

36. To properly link the diagnosis to the service what should be listed in box 24 of the CMS_1500 claim form?

  1. The place of service code

  2. One linking reference number from box 21

  3. The CPT code number

  4. The ICD_9-CM code number

37. Which set of percentages is correct for initial hospital services, 99221 65, 99222 296, 99223 362, 99231 261, 99232 410, 99233 174

  1. 4%, 19%, 23%

  2. 13%, 45%, 42%

  3. 9%, 41%, 50%

  4. 36%, 57%, 24%

38. A claim is denied because the CPT code and place of service code do not match. Where would the coder look to solve this problem for the future?

B. Fee schedule database

39. A patient presents with a closed fracture of the supracondylar humerus and receives open treatment with intercondylar: How should this be coded?

D.24546

40. Red blood cell count, differential white blood cell count, and platelet count automated, is coded as?

C. 85041, 85004, 85049

41. An asthmatic patient is treated with two nebulizer inhalation treatment on the same day by the same physician, using prefilled vials of 0.5 mg of albuterol and 2.5 mg normal saline. How is this coded?

  1. 94640, 94640-76, J7611, J7611

  2. 94664-76

  3. 94664, 94664-22, J7611x6

  4. 94640, 94640

42. A catheter is placed into the renal pelvis for injection. The same physician perfors both the injections and the supervision and interpretation. How is this coded?

  1. 50392, 74475-26

  2. 50392, 74475

  3. 74475-26

  4. 74475

43. Magnetic resonanceimagaing cholangiopancreatograpy on a 25 year old male

  1. 74185

  2. 76498

  3. 58037

  4. 58042

44. A rapid influenza test is performed with a commercial test kit. When complete, the technician visually reads the results as positive, how is this procedure coded?

  1. 87275

  2. 87276

  3. 87400

  4. 87804

45. Some reconstructive plastic surgical procedures are performed in multiple stages. What modifier should the surgeon report when the patient is returned to sugery for a planned stage procedure?

C. 58

46. Accu-check home blood glucose monitor

    1. A4258

    2. E0607

    3. A4253

    4. E0607, A4253

47. CT of maxillofacial area, with and without contrast.

    1. 70488

    2. 70487

    3. 70450

    4. 70486, 70487

48. Two- view x-ray of sacrum and cocoyy

D. 82607, J3420

49. What is the correct code for a nonabsorption vitamin B_12 level?

  1. 82608

  2. 82607

  3. J3420

  4. 82607, J3420

50. RS&I of bilateral extremity angiograph

  1. 75716

51. When clinical laboratory tests are reported on the same day, what modifier should be assigned?

B. 91

52. In addition to the claim submitted by the surgeon, the assistant surgeon bills for his or her services. What modifier does the assistant surgeon attach to the procedure code?

    1. 62

    2. 52

    3. 81

    4. 80

53. A female patient about undergo chemo, decided to harvest and store eggs for later attempts at pregnancy. How is the laboratory service of storage coded?

  1. 89342

  2. 89346

  3. 89343

  4. 89528

54. Visual acuity screening

  1. 99173

55. Comprehensive opthalmology evaluation for a new patient.

    1. 99204

  2. 92012

  3. 92004

  4. 92002

56. Binaural hearing aid check

  1. 92539

  2. 92591

  3. 92590

  4. 92591, 92539

57. Individual interactive psychotherapy, outpatient, 50 minutes.

                D. 90834, 90784

58. EEG, awake and sleep

                 B. 95819

59. With the use of imaging, the patient had a percutaneous needle core biopsy of the left brest.

                 D. LT

60. Barium enema with KUB

               C. 74270

61. Planned sigmoidoscopy with removal of foreign body under conscious sedation, procedure not completed due to hypotension. How would the physician report this?

               C. 53

62. Comprehensive oral examination

  1. D0150

  2. D0145

  3. D0502

  4. D0121

63. A radiologist interprest x-ray for a community hospital. The equipment belongs to the hospital. What modifier should the radiologist append to his CPT code?

  1. 26

  2. TC

  3. 59

  4. 52

64. Replacement of a nonprogrammable epidural drug infusion pump

  1. 62360

  2. 62362

  3. 62360, 62361

  4. 62361

65. Initiation and management of continuous positive airway pressure ventilation

  1. 94660

66. Removal of foreign body from cornea using a slit lamp

    1. 65205

    2. 65222

    3. 65205, 65222

    4. 65220

67. Cervical collar, foam, un-adjustable

    1. L0150

  2. L0180

  3. E0856

  4. L0120

68. Hearing aid, monaural, behind the ear.

  1. V5241

  2. V5298

  3. V5160

  4. V5060

69. The physician provides a patient covered by commercial insurance with a peak flow meter to use at home.

                     D.   58096

70. The physician performs an arthroscopic debridement of the shoulder, extensive, with chondroplasty and abrasion, arthroplasty. An arthroscopic mumford procedure is also performed. How is this coded?

  1. 11044-RT, 23120-RT

  2. 29823-RT, 29824-RT

  3. 11044-RT, 29824-RT

  4. 29823-RT, 23120-RT

71. The modifier used to report therapeutic interventional procedures on the right coronary artery is.

  1. RT

  2. RC

  3. 50

  4. LC

72. The physician performs an open repair of the medical meniscus of right knee: How is this coded.

C. 27403-RT

73. Modified radical mastectomy

  1. 19307

74. The physician treats a patient who has osteomyelitis of the left scapula following a past injury. A piece of dead bone is removed from the body of the scapula. How is this coded?

                    A. 23172-LT

75. The physician performed a partial avulsion of the nail plate of the left thumb.

A. FA

76. Surgical sinus endoscopy with spenoidotomy

                      C. 31287

77. Percutaneous thrombectomy of AV Fistual Graft

    1. 36870

    2. 35331

    3. 92973

    4. 35363

78. Prosthetic aortic value placement, using CP bypass

                     C. 33405

79. Diagnostic lumber puncture

                     A. 62270

80. Catheterization of Eustachian tubes, tympanic approach

    1. 69631

    2. 69405

    3. 69405-50

    4. 69400

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