If all pairs of homologous chromosomes lined up non-randomly along the metaphase plate in meiosis I according to parental origin (i.

If all pairs of homologous chromosomes lined up non-randomly along the metaphase plate in meiosis I according to parental origin (i.e., all maternal chromosomes on one side and all paternal chromosomes on the other), which of Mendel's rules would be violated? Mendel’s first rule (segregation), his second rule (independent assortment), both, or neither?