Public defenders often have trouble gaining the trust and cooperation of their clients because their clients know that they are paid by the state....

Q1. Public defenders often have trouble gaining the trust and cooperation of their clients because their clients know that they are paid by the state.

   a. true

   b. false

Q2. Holding police officers responsible for any unprofessional (or criminal) behavior is referred to as:

   a. civil liability

   b. statutory assessment

   c. legislative occupation

   d. civic accountability

   e. personal morality

Q3. Which model designed to manage off-duty employment of officers permits close control by police supervisors of the off-duty work performed by their officers?

   a. officer contract model

   b. conflict of interest model

   c. union brokerage model

   d. department contract model

   e. public-private interface model

Q4. The court appearance of an accused person where the charges are read is called a(n)

   a. probable cause

   b. arraignment

   c. preponderance of the evidence

   d. reasonable doubt

   e. reasonable suspicion

Q5. Which of the following is where an attorney is employed on a full-time, salaried basis by the government to represent indigents?

   a. public defenders

   b. assigned counsel

   c. contract counsel

   d. legal aid attorneys

   e. appellate defenders

Q6. Internal affairs maintains an informal process for citizens to file complaints. It is never formal.

   a. true

   b. false

Q7. During the discovery process, it is legal for a prosecutor to hide from a defense attorney any evidence that tends to show that the defendant is actually innocent.

   a. true

   b. false

Q8. An indictment occurs when a grand jury decides that the accused should be charged with a crime.

   a. true

   b. false

Q9. An application to a court requesting that an order be issued to bring about a specified action is called a(n)

   a. dismissal

   b. rejection at screening

   c. guilty plea

   d. motion

   e. arraignment

Q10. What is the most common method of selection for the job of county prosecutor?

   a. merit selection

   b. appointed

   c. elected

   d. volunteer

   e. patronage

Q11. Which of the following is contained in the Fifth Amendment?

   a. right to counsel

   b. right to remain silent

   c. free speech clause

   d. warrant clause

   e. search and seizure clause

Q12. Which of the following are the three levels of state courts?

   a. appellate, district, limited jurisdictional

   b. appellate, general jurisdiction, limited jurisdiction

   c. limited jurisdiction, commercial, appellate

   d. general jurisdiction, limited jurisdiction, district

   e. commercial, district, appellate

Q13. Which of the following statement is true regarding work as a judge?

   a. judges usually have very low caseloads

   b. the typical judge is a white female

   c. all judges must have doctoral degrees to sit on the bench

   d. the primary factor judges use to make decisions is their personal religious preference

   e. judges are usually able to set their own schedule and work hours

Q14. Police officers can conduct a warrant search without probable cause.

   a. true

   b. false

Q15. When a defense attorney begins a trial and makes arguments for a client whom the attorney expects will actually accept a plea bargain shortly rather than face the risk of a jury verdict, this is called

   a. agent-mediator

   b. slow plea of guilty

   c. beleaguered dealers

   d. agent guilty

   e. public mediator

Q16. Which doctrine permits officers to notice and use as evidence items that are visible to them when they are in a location that they are permitted to be?

   a. plain view doctrine

   b. public safety doctrine

   c. exigent circumstances doctrine

   d. stop and frisk doctrine

   e. Miranda doctrine

Q17. Judges selected based on merit must eventually face public election.

   a. true

   b. false

Q18. The Fourth Amendment contains the unreasonable search and seizure clause.

   a. true

   b. false

Q19. Officers who accept payoffs that happen to come their way are called

   a. meat eaters

   b. grass eaters

   c. weed eaters

   d. night eaters

   e. flesh eaters

Q20. Which of the following occurs when officers receive a cash 'gift' from offenders in order for them to avoid prosecution?

   a. Bribery

   b. Mooching

   c. Chiseling

   d. Extortion

   e. Favoritism

Q21. In a pat-down by an officer, items that are identifiable by touch cannot be seized as evidence.

   a. true

   b. false

Q22. Funding for homeland security issues can and sometimes does come from money supporting community policing, since homeland security is now a new priority.

   a. true

   b. false

Q23. The acronym CODIS stands for:

   a. Collinear Debate in Serology

   b. Creativity in Other Devices in Seriousness

   c. Convictions of Deviants in Sentencing

   d. Creating other Directions Involving Severity

   e. Combined DNA Index System

Q24. The bail system discriminates against poor people.

   a. true

   b. false

Q25. The Fourth Amendment means nothing without the exclusionary rule.

   a. true

   b. false

Q26. Close cooperation between prosecutors and police is automatic in every case because of their similar views of crime and the fact that they work for the same sponsoring organization.

   a. true

   b. false

Q27. Which of the following is true about the bail system?

   a. bail is sometimes set before the defendant has an attorney

   b. bail bondspersons cannot deny bail to defendants if they can pay at least ten percent of the entire bail amount

   c. police officers are never allowed to influence the bail decision

   d. bail bondspersons are non-profit employees of the state

   e. defendants retain a constitutional right to be released on bail

Q28. Findings from research have indicated there is little difference in outcomes between private attorneys, public defenders, contract counsel, and assigned counsel.

   a. true

   b. false

Q29. In what circumstance is the totality of circumstances used?

   a. to determine whether an offender is guilty

   b. to determine whether to indict a suspect

   c. to determine whether probable cause exists

   d. to determine whether police acted appropriately

   e. to determine whether to Mirandize a suspect

Q30. Police need to develop new technologies in weaponry because officers have been sued for injuring or killing suspects.

   a. true

   b. false

Q31. A defense attorney who works to prepare the defendant for the likely outcome of punishment and who helps persuade the defendant to plead guilty is said to be performing which role?

   a. agent-mediator

   b. slow plea of guilty

   c. beleaguered dealers

   d. beleaguered guilty

   e. public mediator

Q32. The process of a prosecutor sharing information with the defense is called

   a. nolle prosequi

   b. legal sufficiency

   c. probable cause

   d. discovery

   e. deposition

Q33. Surveillance measures risk violating civil liberties of citizens.

   a. true

   b. false

Q34. The Fourth Amendment requires that probable cause be established before a warrant is provided.

   a. true

   b. false

Q35. Consent searches are unconstitutional under the Fourth Amendment.

   a. true

   b. false

Q36. In most states, no higher authority can second guess or change the decision of a prosecutor.

   a. true

   b. false

Q37. Trial courts of general jurisdiction handle only misdemeanors and lawsuits for small amounts of money.

   a. true

   b. false

Q38. The United States has a dual court system.

   a. true

   b. false

Q39. Even if a police officer is acting in the interests of public safety, he/she must obtain a warrant before searching an area.

   a. true

   b. false

Q40. Defense attorneys should never offer psychological support to their clients.

   a. true

   b. false

Q41. Both prosecutors and defense attorneys can bring pretrial motions in court proceedings.

   a. true

   b. false

Q42. The 'rotten apple' theory explains nearly all police corruption.

   a. true

   b. false

Q43. The USA Patriot Act has made it more difficult to collect evidence against suspected terrorists.

   a. true

   b. false

Q44. Judges have a variety of roles within the judicial system.

   a. true

   b. false

Q45. The criterion for deciding if evidence is strong enough to uphold an arrest is called probable cause.

   a. true

   b. false

Q46. Why would a local court want to implement a centralized court administration?

   a. it would avoid problems with jurisdiction

   b. it would reduce caseloads

   c. it would not allow the political party in power to use those positions as 'rewards'

   d. it would help to eliminate gender and racial bias in hiring

   e. it would assist the jurisdiction in hiring more police officers to fight crime

Q47. The job of controlling police misbehavior is often left to the internal control of the police department.

   a. true

   b. false

Q48. The American legal system is based on a passive judge and jury seeking to find the truth as attorneys for each side argue vigorously.

   a. true

   b. false

Q49. The Eighth Amendment to the United States Constitution forbids the use of excessive bail.

   a. true

   b. false

Q50. Community prosecution

   a. is similar to the crime control model of law enforcement

   b. gives prosecutors responsibility for specific neighborhoods

   c. gives prosecutors limited access to police

   d. is an impersonal method of prosecution compared to current systems

   e. reduces citizen voice in solving problems in their neighborhoods