Y at PPP is only 0. It is well-known that investment rate dierenHSL39502.bmpe when measured at a common set of prices while very small when measured...

Y at PPP is only 0.05. It is well-known that investment rate dierenHSL39502.bmpe when measured at a common set of prices while very small when measured at domestic prices. Evidently, the domestic price of investment goods is high relative to consumption in poorer countries. Why? Is this due to taris and taxes, or is it more fundamental?